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The nurse is caring for a 30-year-old nulliparous client who is complaining of severe dysmenorrhea. Which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client to undergo to determine the diagnosis?
- A. A bimanual vaginal exam.
- B. A pregnancy test.
- C. An exploratory laparoscopy.
- D. An ovarian biopsy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Exploratory laparoscopy is used to diagnose conditions like endometriosis, a common cause of severe dysmenorrhea. Bimanual exam is nonspecific, pregnancy tests rule out ectopic pregnancy, and ovarian biopsy is invasive and unrelated.
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The 24-year-old female client presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain on the left side she rates as a '9' on a 1-to-10 scale. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
- A. A computed tomography scan.
- B. A lumbar puncture.
- C. An appendectomy.
- D. A pelvic sonogram.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe left-sided pelvic pain suggests ovarian pathology (e.g., cyst, torsion); a pelvic sonogram is the initial diagnostic tool. CT is less specific, lumbar puncture is irrelevant, and appendectomy is premature.
Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the client recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy?
- A. The client should report any vaginal bleeding or cramping to the surgeon.
- B. The client should start a vigorous exercise routine to restore her muscle tone.
- C. The client should continue sitting in the bedside chair at least six (6) hours daily.
- D. The client should soak in a warm tub bath each night for one (1) hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reporting vaginal bleeding or cramping is critical, as these may indicate complications like hemorrhage or infection. Vigorous exercise is contraindicated, prolonged sitting is unnecessary, and tub baths risk infection.
Which nursing interventions are most appropriate to add to the client's immediate postoperative care plan? Select all that apply.
- A. Elevate the affected arm to reduce swelling.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection at the surgical site.
- C. Encourage early ambulation to prevent complications.
- D. Administer prescribed pain medications as needed.
- E. Teach the client to avoid using the affected arm for 6 weeks.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: Elevating the arm reduces lymphedema risk, monitoring for infection ensures early detection, ambulation prevents complications like thrombosis, and pain management promotes comfort. Restricting arm use for 6 weeks is excessive and not standard.
If the client is asymptomatic and at low risk for breast cancer, the nurse would be correct in advising her to have a baseline mammogram at what age?
- A. 35
- B. 45
- C. 50
- D. 55
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The American Cancer Society recommends that women at average risk for breast cancer begin annual mammograms at age 45, but a baseline mammogram may be considered at age 40-50 depending on guidelines. For low-risk, asymptomatic women, age 50 is often the standard starting point for routine screening.
The nurse is teaching men about early detection of prostate cancer according to the American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines. Which should the nurse teach the clients?
- A. Beginning at age 39 a Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) followed by a prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- B. Beginning at age 45 a rectal sonogram and, if positive, followed by a Digital Rectal Examination (DRE).
- C. Beginning at age 50 a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) followed by a Digital Rectal Examination (DRE).
- D. Beginning at age 60 a Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) followed, if positive, by a prostate biopsy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACS recommends PSA and DRE starting at age 50 for average-risk men. Earlier screening, sonograms, or biopsies are not standard unless indicated.