Nokea
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
- A. Blood pressure of 155/95
- B. Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr
- C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
- D. Client complains of blurred vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 155/95 indicates hypertension, a key feature of worsening pre-eclampsia. Hypertension in pre-eclampsia can lead to serious complications like eclampsia. High blood pressure can put the client at risk for seizures, stroke, and organ damage.
Incorrect choices:
B: Urinary output > 30 mL/hr is a positive sign, indicating adequate renal function, which is desirable in pre-eclampsia.
C: Deep tendon reflexes +2 are within normal limits and do not necessarily indicate worsening pre-eclampsia.
D: Blurred vision is a common symptom of pre-eclampsia but not a definitive sign of worsening condition.
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The doctor suspects that the client is in preterm labor. Which symptom is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Severe pain in the lower quadrant
- B. Severe pain and hard abdomen to palpation
- C. Painless vaginal bleeding
- D. Abdominal cramping and lower back pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal cramping and lower back pain. These symptoms are typical of preterm labor due to the contractions of the uterus. Lower back pain is a common sign of labor, and abdominal cramping is indicative of uterine contractions. Severe pain in the lower quadrant (A) is more consistent with issues like appendicitis. Severe pain and hard abdomen (B) may indicate a more serious condition like placental abruption. Painless vaginal bleeding (C) is more characteristic of conditions like placenta previa. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate in the context of suspected preterm labor.
A 17-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which factor likely caused her condition?
- A. Having high levels of hCG
- B. Having high blood pressure
- C. Being an adolescent
- D. Being underweight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being an adolescent. Adolescents are more prone to hyperemesis gravidarum due to several factors such as hormonal changes, increased stress, poor diet, and lack of prenatal care awareness. Being an adolescent increases the risk of complications during pregnancy leading to hyperemesis gravidarum. High levels of hCG (choice A) are a symptom rather than a cause of hyperemesis gravidarum. High blood pressure (choice B) and being underweight (choice D) are not directly linked to the development of hyperemesis gravidarum in adolescents.
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect may indicate pulmonary edema. This condition occurs due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to symptoms like coughing. The increased blood volume and pressure during pregnancy can exacerbate the client's existing heart condition, resulting in pulmonary edema. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing when lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not typically associated with a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) would not directly lead to a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to hypertension and other complications during pregnancy. Multiparity (B) is associated with a lower risk of pre-eclampsia, as previous pregnancies can provide some level of protection. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a definitive risk factor for pre-eclampsia, as it can affect individuals of all races.