Nokea
The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Cancer
- D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
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An absence of what may facilitate the occurrence of bacterial vaginosis?
- A. Antibodies
- B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
- C. Gardnerella vaginalis
- D. Vaginal mucosa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Lactobacillus acidophilus
Rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a beneficial bacteria that helps maintain the acidic pH of the vagina, inhibiting the growth of harmful bacteria like Gardnerella vaginalis. An absence of Lactobacillus acidophilus can disrupt the vaginal microbiota balance, allowing for the overgrowth of harmful bacteria and leading to bacterial vaginosis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Antibodies - Antibodies play a role in the immune response but are not directly related to the occurrence of bacterial vaginosis.
C: Gardnerella vaginalis - Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, not its absence.
D: Vaginal mucosa - The integrity of the vaginal mucosa is important for protection, but its absence would not directly facilitate bacterial vaginosis.
A patient, 32 weeks pregnant with severe headache, is admitted to the hospital with preeclampsia. In addition to obtaining baseline vital signs and placing the client on bed rest, the physician ordered the following four items. Which of the orders should the nurse perform first?
- A. Assess deep tendon reflexes.'
- B. Obtain complete blood count.'
- C. Assess baseline weight.'
- D. Obtain routine urinalysis.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess deep tendon reflexes. This is the priority because preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, a life-threatening condition characterized by seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes helps in identifying signs of impending eclampsia. Obtaining a complete blood count (option B) and routine urinalysis (option D) are important in monitoring for complications of preeclampsia but do not address the immediate risk of seizures. Assessing baseline weight (option C) is also important but does not take precedence over assessing deep tendon reflexes in this scenario.
During the physical assessment of a female client with HPV, which should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Purulent vaginal discharge
- B. Condylomata
- C. Malodorous vaginal discharge
- D. No clinical manifestation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Condylomata. HPV can manifest as genital warts or condylomata acuminata. These are flesh-colored growths that appear on the genital area. The presence of condylomata indicates an active HPV infection. Choices A and C are incorrect as purulent or malodorous discharge is not typically associated with HPV. Choice D is incorrect as HPV often presents with visible symptoms like condylomata.
According to the standard staging classification for breast cancer, which criteria reflects stage 2 breast cancer?
- A. Tumor smaller than 2 cm, no regional lymph node metastasis, no distant metastasis
- B. No evidence of tumor; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure but no distant metastasis
- C. Tumor larger than 5 cm; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure; no distant metastasis
- D. Tumor larger than 2 to 5 cm; no regional lymph node metastasis; no distant metastasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it aligns with the criteria for stage 2 breast cancer in the standard staging classification. In stage 2, the tumor is typically larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm, there is no regional lymph node metastasis, and there are no distant metastases. Option A is incorrect because the tumor size is smaller than 2 cm, which does not meet the criteria for stage 2. Option B is incorrect as it describes no evidence of tumor with lymph node metastasis, which does not represent stage 2. Option C is incorrect as the tumor size is larger than 5 cm, exceeding the criteria for stage 2.
Which factors contribute to a woman’s perception of her body? Select all that apply.
- A. Role of motherhood
- B. Sexuality
- C. Relationships at work
- D. Family and social relationships
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexuality. This factor contributes to a woman's perception of her body as it influences how she views herself in terms of attractiveness, desirability, and self-image. Sexuality plays a significant role in shaping body image and self-esteem.
A: Role of motherhood - While motherhood can impact body image, it is not a universal factor for all women.
C: Relationships at work - While work relationships can influence self-esteem, they may not directly impact body perception.
D: Family and social relationships - While important, they may not directly relate to body perception as much as sexuality does.
In summary, sexuality plays a crucial role in shaping a woman's perception of her body compared to the other factors listed.