Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
- A. insulin.
- B. poatassium chloride.
- C. furosemide (Lasix)
- D. vasopressin (Pitressin).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasopressin (Pitressin). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps regulate water balance by reducing urine output. Therefore, administering vasopressin would help manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Insulin (A) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Potassium chloride (B) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not specific to diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) (C) is a diuretic that increases urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.
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A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding ulcer and is to receive 4 units of packed cells. Which nursing intervention is of primary importance in the administration of blood?
- A. Checking the flow rate
- B. Monitoring the vital signs
- C. Identifying the client
- D. Maintaining blood temperature
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identifying the client is crucial for correct blood transfusion to avoid errors.
Step 2: Client identification includes verifying name, date of birth, and unique identifiers.
Step 3: Ensuring correct patient prevents transfusion reactions and improves patient safety.
Step 4: Monitoring vital signs and flow rate are important but secondary to client identification.
Step 5: Maintaining blood temperature is not a primary concern during blood transfusion.
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
- A. pupil size, response to pain, motor responses
- B. Pupil size, verbal response, motor response
- C. Eye opening, verbal response, motor response
- D. Eye opening, response to pain, motor response J.E, is an 18-year old freshman admitted to the ICU following a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained multiple trauma including a ruptured spleen, myocardial contusion, fractured pelvis, and fractured right femur. He had a mild contusion, but is alert and oriented. His vital signs BP 120/80, pulse 84, respirations 12, and temperature 99 F orally.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
- A. Etiology
- B. Nursing diagnosis
- C. Collaborative problem
- D. Defining characteristic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. A collaborative problem involves potential complications that require both nursing and medical interventions. In this case, impaired physical mobility is a nursing diagnosis that requires nursing interventions to address the patient's inability to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all relevant components of a nursing diagnostic statement: A - Etiology identifies the cause of the nursing diagnosis, B - Nursing diagnosis states the health problem, and D - Defining characteristic provides evidence supporting the nursing diagnosis.
A 34 year old client is diagnosed with AIDS. His pharmacologic management includes zidovudine (AZT). During a home visit, the client states, “I don’t understand how this medication works. Will it stop the infection?” What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. The medication helps to slow the disease process, but it won’t cure or stop it totally
- B. The medication blocks reverse transcriptase, the enzyme required fro HIV replication
- C. Don’t you know? There aren’t medication to stop or cure HIV
- D. No. it won’t stop the infection. In fact, sometimes the HIV can become immune to the drug itself
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should explain that zidovudine (AZT) works by blocking reverse transcriptase, the enzyme necessary for HIV replication. This is the key mechanism of action for AZT in managing HIV.
Choice A is incorrect because it provides a partial truth - it does slow the disease process but does not provide the mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as it provides incorrect information that there are no medications to stop or cure HIV, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it provides misleading information about the drug becoming immune to HIV, which is not the primary concern in this context.