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The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching?
- A. The patient has a history of dental caries.
- B. The patient swims several days each week.
- C. The patient snacks frequently during the day.
- D. The patient showers each day with mild soap.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abdominal radiation fries skin swimming in chlorinated or salt water during treatment risks irritation or infection in that tender zone. Dental caries don't tie in. Snacking might help nutrition, not hurt. Mild soap showers are fine. Nurses in oncology flag this no swimming' protects radiated skin, a teaching must to dodge complications.
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A 7-year-old child with osteosarcoma is being treated with chemotherapy. Which medication would the nurse expect the physician to order most commonly as a prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii?
- A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- B. Ketoconazole
- C. Filgastim
- D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osteosarcoma chemotherapy compromises the immune system, increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), a serious risk in immunocompromised children. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the most common prophylactic antibiotic for PCP, effectively preventing this lung infection by targeting its causative organism. Ketoconazole treats fungal infections but not PCP, which is caused by a fungus-like organism requiring specific therapy. Filgrastim stimulates neutrophil production to combat neutropenia, not PCP directly. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, suppresses immunity and reduces tumor-related edema but doesn't prevent infections and may increase risk. The nurse anticipates TMP-SMX due to its established role in pediatric oncology protocols, ensuring protection against a preventable, potentially fatal complication during chemotherapy.
The nursing instructor explains the difference between normal cells and benign tumor cells. What information does the instructor provide about these cells?
- A. Benign tumors grow through invasion of other tissue.
- B. Benign tumors have lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition.
- C. Growing in the wrong place or time is typical of benign tumors.
- D. The loss of characteristics of the parent cells is called anaplasia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benign tumors are fundamentally different from malignant tumors in their behavior and characteristics. Unlike malignant tumors, which invade surrounding tissues, benign tumors do not grow through invasion but rather through hyperplasia, a controlled increase in cell number. They retain contact inhibition, a regulatory mechanism where normal cells stop dividing when they touch each other, preventing uncontrolled growth. The defining feature of benign tumors is that they consist of cells that are essentially normal but are growing in an inappropriate location or at an incorrect time, such as a lipoma in fatty tissue. Anaplasia, on the other hand, refers to the loss of differentiation and is a hallmark of malignant cancer cells, not benign ones. Thus, the instructor would emphasize that benign tumors are misplaced normal cells, making this the accurate statement. This distinction is critical for nursing students to understand, as it impacts diagnosis, treatment decisions, and patient education regarding the non-threatening nature of benign tumors compared to cancerous growths.
Rehabilitation utilises two types of rehabilitation interventions. The goal of the intervention support is to
- A. Maintaining existing abilities
- B. Restoring function
- C. Preventing deterioration and further disability
- D. Maintaining existing abilities while preventing new or further disabilities
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rehab's dual play hold steady, fend off worse blends maintenance and prevention, a chronic balance. Nurses aim here, a full guard.
One of the features of type 2 diabetes mellitus is the abnormally increased blood glucose values after meals. Question: What causes this abnormal rise of postprandial blood glucose?
- A. Insufficient glucose uptake in the liver due a shortage of Glut-2 transporters
- B. Insufficient glucose uptake in muscle tissue due to a defect in the Glut-4 transporters
- C. Insufficient glucose uptake in adipose tissue due to a defect in the intracellular insulin signal cascade
- D. Insufficient glucose uptake in muscle tissue due to a defect in the intracellular insulin signal cascade
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type 2's post-meal spike muscle's insulin signal jams, Glut-4 stalls, glucose piles up. Liver's Glut-2's fine, fat's minor, muscle's the big miss nurses peg this resistance core, a chronic uptake bust.
You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
- A. Palliative
- B. Reconstructive
- C. Salvage
- D. Prophylactic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stage IV colon cancer with liver mets is endgame surgery here's palliative, easing pain, obstruction, or bleeding, not curing. Reconstructive fixes form post-cure, irrelevant now. Salvage hits recurrence after lighter tries, not this late stage. Prophylactic's preemptive, not reactive. Palliative's about comfort, aligning with oncology's shift to quality of life when cure's off the table, a tough but real talk nurses navigate.