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A patient is being interviewed by the nurse. During the family history assessment, the patient reports having had relatives with cancer. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. Complete a pedigree, noting the types of cancer and which relatives were affected.
- B. Ask whether the cancer was in male or female relatives.
- C. Determine whether the cancer reported in the family history is pertinent to the patient's personal medical history.
- D. Schedule a consult with a genetic counselor to further assess the patient's risk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Completing a pedigree allows for a visual representation of the family's health history.
2. Noting the types of cancer and affected relatives helps identify patterns and potential genetic risks.
3. This response demonstrates a proactive approach to understanding the patient's genetic predispositions.
Summary of other choices:
B: Asking about the gender of affected relatives does not provide as much detailed information about the types of cancer or specific family members affected.
C: Determining relevance to personal history is important, but a pedigree provides a broader picture for risk assessment.
D: Referring to a genetic counselor may be necessary but completing a pedigree first helps gather essential information for a more informed consultation.
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What is the role of hCG in early pregnancy tests?
- A. hCG stimulates ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- B. hCG levels rise after implantation, confirming pregnancy.
- C. hCG reduces the risk of miscarriage during early pregnancy.
- D. hCG suppresses the menstrual cycle during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) levels rise after implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus, confirming pregnancy. This hormone is produced by the developing placenta and is the key marker used in early pregnancy tests to detect pregnancy.
A is incorrect because hCG does not stimulate ovulation; rather, it is produced after ovulation to support pregnancy.
C is incorrect because while hCG plays a role in supporting pregnancy, it does not directly reduce the risk of miscarriage.
D is incorrect because hCG does not suppress the menstrual cycle; it is actually produced during pregnancy and is essential for maintaining the pregnancy.
A 25-year-old female tells the nurse, 'I have always planned on having children, but now I have been diagnosed with leukemia. I will start chemotherapy treatments soon.' The nurse should discuss which fertility preservation options with this patient?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Gestational carrier
- C. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval
- D. Cryopreservation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryopreservation. This option allows the patient to preserve her fertility by freezing her eggs before starting chemotherapy, which may affect her ovarian function. Cryopreservation is the most suitable choice in this scenario as it provides the patient with the opportunity to have biological children in the future. Donor oocytes (choice A) and gestational carrier (choice B) are not relevant options for this patient as she wants to use her own eggs. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval (choice C) may not be feasible due to the urgency of starting chemotherapy and the potential risks associated with ovarian stimulation.
At ovulation, the basal body temperature usually:
- A. Rises abruptly and then falls 1 or 2 days after menstruation starts.
- B. Falls and remains low for the last half of the cycle.
- C. Is higher during the first half of the cycle than in the last half.
- D. Falls just before ovulation and is higher during the last half.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Basal body temperature usually rises abruptly at ovulation and then falls 1 or 2 days after menstruation starts. This rise indicates the release of an egg and the shift from the follicular phase to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
A patient undergoing ovulation induction asks about the risks involved. What should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. There are no risks associated with ovulation induction.
- B. The most common risk is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).
- C. Ovulation induction reduces the chances of natural conception.
- D. Risks only occur with injectable medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The most common risk is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). This is because during ovulation induction, there is a risk of overstimulating the ovaries, leading to OHSS. This condition can cause abdominal pain, bloating, and in severe cases, fluid accumulation in the abdomen and chest. Other choices are incorrect: A is false as there are risks associated with ovulation induction. C is incorrect because ovulation induction actually increases the chances of conception. D is incorrect as risks can also occur with oral medications, not just injectables.
What is the purpose of embryo freezing in fertility treatments?
- A. To eliminate the need for future egg retrieval cycles.
- B. To store embryos for future use, preserving fertility options.
- C. To improve the genetic quality of embryos before transfer.
- D. To avoid the use of hormonal treatments during IVF.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Embryo freezing in fertility treatments allows for the storage of embryos for future use, preserving fertility options. This is important in case the initial IVF cycle is unsuccessful or if the individual wants to have more children later on. Freezing embryos also enables individuals to avoid repeated egg retrieval cycles, saving time, cost, and potential risks associated with the procedure. Additionally, it allows for the preservation of younger and healthier embryos, optimizing the chances of successful pregnancy in the future. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the primary purpose of embryo freezing in fertility treatments, which is to provide individuals with the option to use stored embryos in the future.