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A couple that has been attempting to become pregnant for 5 years is seeking assistance from an infertility clinic. The nurse assesses the clients' emotional responses to their infertility. Which of the following responses would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
- A. Anger at others who have babies.
- B. Feelings of failure because they can't make a baby.
- C. Sexual excitement because they want so desperately to conceive a baby.
- D. Sadness because of the perceived loss of being a parent.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Common emotional responses to infertility include anger, feelings of failure, and sadness.
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A nurse is providing care to a client in labor. A pelvic exam reveals a vertex presentation with the presenting part tilted toward the left side of the mother's pelvis and directed toward the anterior portion of the pelvis. When developing this client's plan of care, which intervention would the nurse include?
- A. implementing measures for a vaginal birth
- B. preparing the client for a cesarean birth
- C. assisting with artificial rupture of the membranes
- D. instituting continuous internal fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fetal presentation and position is left occiput anterior position or LOA, which is the most common and most favorable fetal position for birth. LOA along with right occiput anterior position are optimal positions for vaginal birth. Therefore the nurse should implement measures for a vaginal birth. This fetal presentation is not an indication for cesarean birth. Nor is there need for artificially rupturing the membranes. Continuous internal fetal monitoring would be warranted if the woman or fetus was considered to be high risk.
A patient undergoing ovulation induction asks about the risks involved. What should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. There are no risks associated with ovulation induction.
- B. The most common risk is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).
- C. Ovulation induction reduces the chances of natural conception.
- D. Risks only occur with injectable medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The most common risk is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). This is because during ovulation induction, there is a risk of overstimulating the ovaries, leading to OHSS. This condition can cause abdominal pain, bloating, and in severe cases, fluid accumulation in the abdomen and chest. Other choices are incorrect: A is false as there are risks associated with ovulation induction. C is incorrect because ovulation induction actually increases the chances of conception. D is incorrect as risks can also occur with oral medications, not just injectables.
A nurse is discussing the benefits of a single embryo transfer (SET) in IVF. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. SET guarantees a successful pregnancy with one attempt.
- B. SET reduces the risk of multiple pregnancies and associated complications.
- C. SET eliminates the need for ovarian stimulation in future cycles.
- D. SET improves egg quality for future cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: SET reduces the risk of multiple pregnancies and associated complications. This is because transferring a single embryo in IVF lowers the chances of multiple gestations, which can lead to higher risks for both the mother and the babies. This choice emphasizes the importance of safety and health benefits for both the mother and potential offspring.
Choice A is incorrect as there is no guarantee of a successful pregnancy with one attempt. Choice C is incorrect as ovarian stimulation may still be needed in future cycles even with SET. Choice D is incorrect as SET does not directly improve egg quality for future cycles.
A 4-month-old infant has been diagnosed with a rare genetic disease called neonatal onset multisystem inflammatory disease (NOMID). This disease occurs through an autosomal-dominant inheritance pattern. The parents ask the nurse, 'Which of us passed this disease on to our child?' Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
- A. Only the female carries the gene.
- B. Only the father carries the gene.
- C. Either the mother or the father can carry the gene.
- D. Both the mother and the father have to be carriers.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Either the mother or the father can carry the gene. In an autosomal-dominant inheritance pattern, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to express the disease. This means that either parent can pass on the disease gene to the child. Therefore, it is not necessary for both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease. Choices A and B are incorrect because autosomal-dominant diseases do not depend on the gender of the parent carrying the gene. Choice D is incorrect as it implies that both parents must be carriers, which is not a requirement for autosomal-dominant inheritance.
What is the purpose of embryo freezing in fertility treatments?
- A. To eliminate the need for future egg retrieval cycles.
- B. To store embryos for future use, preserving fertility options.
- C. To improve the genetic quality of embryos before transfer.
- D. To avoid the use of hormonal treatments during IVF.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Embryo freezing in fertility treatments allows for the storage of embryos for future use, preserving fertility options. This is important in case the initial IVF cycle is unsuccessful or if the individual wants to have more children later on. Freezing embryos also enables individuals to avoid repeated egg retrieval cycles, saving time, cost, and potential risks associated with the procedure. Additionally, it allows for the preservation of younger and healthier embryos, optimizing the chances of successful pregnancy in the future. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the primary purpose of embryo freezing in fertility treatments, which is to provide individuals with the option to use stored embryos in the future.