Nokea
The genetic counselor informs a couple that they have a 25% probability of getting pregnant with a child with a severe genetic disease. The couple asks the nurse exactly what that means. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Their first child will have the genetic disease.
- B. If they have four children
- C. one of the children will have the disease.
- D. Their fourth child will have the genetic disease.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A 25% probability applies independently to each pregnancy.
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A nurse working with an infertile couple has made the following nursing diagnosis: Sexual dysfunction related to decreased libido. Which of the following assessments is the likely reason for this diagnosis?
- A. The couple has established a set schedule for their sexual encounters.
- B. The couple has been married for more than eight years.
- C. The couple lives with one set of parents.
- D. The couple has close friends who gave birth to a baby within the past year.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A rigid schedule for sexual activity can contribute to decreased libido and sexual dysfunction.
A patient undergoing IUI asks why sperm washing is performed. What is the nurse's explanation?
- A. It concentrates healthy sperm to increase fertilization potential.
- B. It ensures sperm are only viable for IVF procedures.
- C. It reduces the chances of genetic abnormalities in offspring.
- D. It prevents ovulation from occurring too early in the cycle.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sperm washing in IUI concentrates healthy sperm, removing debris and non-motile sperm, increasing the chance of fertilization. Choice B is incorrect as sperm washing is not specifically for IVF. Choice C is incorrect, as genetic abnormalities are not directly related to sperm washing. Choice D is incorrect, as sperm washing does not affect ovulation timing.
A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Laboratory results indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is normal. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate
- C. Follitropin injections to stimulate ovarian follicles
- D. In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Donor oocytes. Diminished ovarian reserve implies reduced quantity and quality of eggs, making natural conception challenging. Donor oocytes offer a viable option for achieving pregnancy.
B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not be effective if ovarian reserve is significantly diminished.
C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own ovarian follicles, which may not be successful if ovarian reserve is low.
D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer require viable eggs from the patient, which may be limited in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.
Karen, a 28-year-old female patient, has a hysterosalpingogram ordered but not scheduled. What should the nurse tell the patient?
- A. When your next menses starts, call the office to schedule your procedure.
- B. You may experience uterine cramping during the procedure.
- C. Radiation exposure will be avoided through the use of ultrasound imaging.
- D. The purpose of the test is to evaluate the inside of your uterus and your fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A):
- A is correct because the nurse should instruct the patient to call the office when her next menstrual cycle starts to schedule the hysterosalpingogram. This is essential as the test needs to be performed during a specific phase of the menstrual cycle for accurate results.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
- B: While uterine cramping may be a possible side effect of the procedure, this information is not the most crucial to communicate to the patient at this time.
- C: While it is important to address concerns about radiation exposure, the use of ultrasound imaging doesn't eliminate the need for the patient to schedule the procedure at the appropriate time in her menstrual cycle.
- D: While this choice provides some information about the purpose of the test, it does not address the immediate action the patient needs to take to schedule the procedure correctly.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. Lori mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Lori is taking clomiphene citrate which can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).
2. Symptoms like abdominal bloating, weight gain, and nausea are characteristic of OHSS.
3. OHSS typically occurs after ovulation induction medications like clomiphene citrate.
4. Therefore, Lori's symptoms indicate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
Summary:
A. Ovulation is incorrect as the symptoms suggest a complication of ovulation induction, not ovulation itself.
B. Premenstrual syndrome does not explain the acute symptoms and weight gain.
D. Failed ovulation induction is incorrect as the symptoms are not indicative of failed ovulation but rather an adverse reaction to the medication.