Nokea
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client in Buck's (extension) traction. The nurse should determine that which is a priority client problem?
- A. Immobility
- B. Risk of infection
- C. Altered independence
- D. Insufficient sensory stimulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority client problem in Buck's traction is immobility. Options 3 and 4 may also be appropriate for the client in traction, but immobility presents the greatest risk for the development of complications. Buck's traction is a skin traction, and there are no pin sites.
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained during a lumbar puncture from a child who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which result would most likely confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Clear CSF with low protein and low glucose
- B. Cloudy CSF with low protein and low glucose
- C. Cloudy CSF with high protein and low glucose
- D. Decreased pressure and cloudy CSF with high protein
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A diagnosis of meningitis is made by testing CSF obtained by lumbar puncture. In the case of bacterial meningitis, findings usually include increased pressure and cloudy CSF with high protein and low glucose. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
At the last vaginal exam, the client who is in the late first stage of labor was fully effaced, 8 cm dilated, vertex presentation, and station -1. Which observation would indicate that the fetus was in fetal distress?
- A. The fetal heart rate slowly drops to 110 beats/min during strong contractions, recovering to 138 beats/min immediately afterward.
- B. Fresh meconium is found on the examiner's gloved fingers after a vaginal exam, and the fetal monitor pattern remains essentially unchanged.
- C. Fresh, thick meconium is passed with a small gush of liquid, and the fetal monitor shows late decelerations with a variable descending baseline.
- D. The vaginal exam continues to reveal some old meconium staining, and the fetal monitor demonstrates a U-shaped pattern of deceleration during contractions, recovering to a baseline of 140 beats/min.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meconium staining alone is not a sign of fetal distress. Meconium passage is a normal physiological function that is frequently noted with a fetus of more than 38 weeks' gestation. Fresh meconium, in combination with late decelerations and a variable descending baseline, is an ominous signal of fetal distress caused by fetal hypoxia. It is not unusual for the fetal heart rate to drop to less than the 140 to 160 beats/min range in late labor during contractions, and, in a healthy fetus, the fetal heart rate will recover between contractions. Old meconium staining may be the result of a prenatal trauma that is resolved.
A client manages peptic ulcer disease (PUD) with excessive amounts of oral antacids. Signs/symptoms of which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess for?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral antacids can be effective treatment for PUD when administered properly, but when they are taken in excess they can lead to metabolic alkalosis (a pH of more than 7.45 and a bicarbonate ion [HCO3] level of more than 27 mEq/L [27 mmol/L]). As effective therapy for PUD, antacids bind with the hydrochloric acid (HCl-) of gastric secretions and halt the corrosive action of the HCl-. However, antacids are alkaline substances, and excessive administration can exceed the kidney's ability to clear the excess HCO3, which leads to the accumulation of HCO3, an increased pH, and metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH is low and the HCO3 is low; respiratory acidosis occurs when the pH is low and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is high; and respiratory alkalosis occurs when the pH is high and the PCO2 is low.
A pregnant client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse is prescribed anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy. The nurse reviews the client's medical record, expecting to note that which medication therapy is prescribed daily?
- A. Oral warfarin
- B. Intravenous infusion of heparin sodium
- C. Subcutaneous administration of terbutaline
- D. Subcutaneous administration of heparin sodium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnant women with mitral valve prolapse are frequently given anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy because they are at greater risk for thromboembolic disease during the antenatal, intrapartal, and postpartum periods. Heparin, which does not pass the placental barrier, is a safe anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy, and it would be administered by the subcutaneous route. Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy because it passes the placental barrier and causes potential fetal malformations and hemorrhagic disorders. Terbutaline is a medication that is indicated for preterm labor management.
A child is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis. The child has been experiencing fever, malaise, anorexia, and a headache. Which diagnostic study will confirm the diagnosis?
- A. A blood culture
- B. A sedimentation rate
- C. A white blood cell count
- D. An electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis is primarily established on the basis of a positive blood culture of the organisms and the visualization of vegetation on echocardiographic studies. Other laboratory tests that may help confirm the diagnosis are an elevated sedimentation rate and the C-reactive protein level. An ECG is not usually helpful for the diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis.