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A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
- B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
- C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
- D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C is correct because AAT deficiency increases the risk of COPD, especially with smoking. This response provides accurate information regarding the client's health risk. A is incorrect as it specifically mentions children rather than the client's own risk. B is incorrect as it focuses on genetic counseling rather than addressing the client's question. D is incorrect as it inaccurately states that the gene does not affect health.
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A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Increased temperature
- B. Absent breath sounds
- C. Productive cough
- D. Incisional discomfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absent breath sounds. This finding requires immediate action because it could indicate a pneumothorax, which is a potentially life-threatening complication following a lung biopsy. Absent breath sounds suggest air trapped in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent respiratory distress.
A: Increased temperature is concerning but may indicate infection, which would require monitoring and possibly treatment, but it is not as urgent as addressing a potential pneumothorax.
C: Productive cough is common post-lung biopsy and may be managed symptomatically. It does not typically require immediate action.
D: Incisional discomfort is expected after a biopsy and can be managed with pain medication. It does not indicate a critical issue requiring immediate intervention.
What is the purpose of the Weber test?
- A. To determine the type of hearing loss
- B. To measure intraocular pressure
- C. To assess color vision
- D. To evaluate pupil response
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Weber test helps differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.
Place the steps of the evidence-based practice (EBP) process in order (0 being the first step; 6 being the last step).
- A. Create a spirit of inquiry
- B. Ask a clinical question
- C. Critically analyze the evidence
- D. Make recommendations for practice or generate data
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EBP process begins with creating a spirit of inquiry, followed by asking a clinical question, finding and analyzing evidence, making recommendations, and evaluating outcomes.
A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)
- A. Age
- B. Hypertension
- C. Obesity
- D. Smoking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hypertension is a modifiable risk factor as it can be controlled through lifestyle changes and medication.
2. Age is a non-modifiable risk factor, as it naturally increases the risk of coronary artery disease.
3. Obesity is a modifiable risk factor, as weight management through diet and exercise can reduce the risk.
4. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor, as quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk.
Summary:
B is correct as it is a modifiable risk factor that can be actively managed. A, C, and D are incorrect as age is non-modifiable and obesity and smoking are modifiable but were not selected as correct options.
Why would T3, T4, blood chemistry panel, and drug screen tests be performed prior to admission?
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Avoid social interactions
- C. Ignore stressors
- D. Increase workload
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is the most appropriate response based on physiological and medical principles.