The nurse is instructing an adolescent female client who is not sexually active on potential vaccinations available. Which vaccination would the nurse state that decreases the risk of cervical cancer?
- A. Hepatitis B
- B. Human papilloma viral (HPV)
- C. Herpes zoster
- D. Meningococcal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Human papilloma viral (HPV) infection is the most commonly transmitted sexual disease in the United States. A strain of this infection can cause cervical cancer. An HPV vaccine is available to both females and males. For females, the vaccine decreases the risk of cervical cancer and genital warts. For males, the vaccine decreases the risk of genital warts and anal cancers. Hepatitis B vaccine protects against a liver disease. Herpes zoster is the vaccine for shingles. The meningococcal vaccine protects against several diseases including meningitis.
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A client with primary syphilis is allergic to penicillin. The nurse would expect the physician to order which agent?
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Ceftriaxone
- C. Podophyllum resin
- D. Tetracycline
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients who are allergic to penicillin are given a 14-day regimen of tetracycline or doxycycline. Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes. Ceftriaxone may be used for gonorrhea. Podophyllum resin is used to treat genital warts.
The nurse is instructing an adolescent on ways to prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs). When evaluating the options, which is best when the client states being sexually active?
- A. Having one sexual partner
- B. Abstinence
- C. Use a latex condom with a spermicide.
- D. Urinating after sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is most correct to instruct the sexually active client on the proper use of a latex condom. A latex condom with nonoxynol-9 is best to be used when having oral, vaginal, or anal intercourse. Having one sexual partner does not mean that the partner does not have a sexually transmitted infection. The client states being sexually active, thus, abstinence is not an option. Urinating after intercourse reduces the risk of an STI, however, providing a barrier between the partners is a better option.
The nurse is caring for a client in the tertiary stage of a syphilis infection. Which assessment finding is anticipated?
- A. The client has ulcers in the genital region.
- B. The client has arthritis symptoms making ambulation difficult.
- C. The client has dementia and cannot care for himself or herself.
- D. The client complains of a headache and sore throat.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client in the tertiary stage of a syphilis infection is expected to have central nervous system complications including dementia. In the primary stage, a chancre appears on the genitals. In the secondary stage, a fever, malaise, rash, headache, and sore throat are anticipated. There are no musculoskeletal symptoms associated with syphilis.
Which type of sexually transmitted disease is the nurse most accurate to highlight in the client's history as it remains dormant in the body and can reoccur at any time?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Herpes infection
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is most accurate to highlight the herpes infection as the virus can remain dormant in the ganglia of the nerves. Symptoms are usually more severe with the initial outbreak. Subsequent episodes are usually shorter and less intense. The other infections are important to note in the history.
The nurse is giving a presentation about chlamydia to a group of adult women. Which female client should the nurse use as an example of an individual for whom annual screening is recommended?
- A. 43-year-old client who practices consistent condom use
- B. 32-year old client with one long-term, exclusive sex partner
- C. 23-year-old client who is not sexually active
- D. 18-year old client who is pregnant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The US Preventive Services Task Force (2021) recommends annual screening for chlamydia for all pregnant and nonpregnant sexually active women younger than 24 years. It is not recommended to conduct screening for the client who practices condom use and the client with one long-term, exclusive sex partner, as they are both over 24 years old. The 23-year-old client is not sexually active and therefore does not require an annual screening.
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