Nokea
The nurse is providing care to a pregnant person at 32 weeks’ gestation. The nurse expects to observe what change in the pregnant person’s spine?
- A. sclerosis
- B. scoliosis
- C. kyphosis
- D. lordosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: lordosis. At 32 weeks' gestation, the pregnant person's center of gravity shifts forward, causing an increased lumbar lordosis to compensate. This change helps maintain balance and support the growing uterus. Sclerosis (choice A) refers to hardening of tissues, not a typical change in the spine during pregnancy. Scoliosis (choice B) is a lateral curvature of the spine, not typically related to pregnancy. Kyphosis (choice C) is an exaggerated outward curve in the upper spine, not a common change in pregnancy.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is providing education to a pregnant person regarding the nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. Identify the relief measures the nurse would discuss. Select all that apply.
- A. avoid dairy products
- B. avoid strong odors
- C. drink fluids between meals
- D. drink sweet fluids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: avoid dairy products. This is because dairy products can exacerbate nausea in some pregnant individuals due to their high fat content. Avoiding dairy products can help reduce nausea symptoms.
Rationale:
1. Avoiding dairy products: High fat content in dairy products can trigger nausea in some pregnant individuals.
2. Avoid strong odors: While strong odors can trigger nausea, it is not a specific relief measure for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
3. Drink fluids between meals: Staying hydrated is important, but drinking fluids between meals is not a specific relief measure for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
4. Drink sweet fluids: While some pregnant individuals find relief from nausea by consuming sweet fluids, it is not a universal recommendation and may not work for everyone.
A female patient with a history of infertility is scheduled to have a hysterosalpingogram. Which findings can be detected with this procedure? Select all that apply.
- A. Tubal occlusions
- B. Uterine fibroids
- C. Cervical irritation
- D. Bicornate uterus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tubal occlusions. Hysterosalpingogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure used to evaluate the uterus and fallopian tubes. It can detect tubal occlusions by visualizing the flow of contrast dye through the fallopian tubes. Choice B, uterine fibroids, is incorrect as hysterosalpingogram does not specifically assess uterine fibroids. Choice C, cervical irritation, is also incorrect as this procedure focuses on the uterus and fallopian tubes, not the cervix. Choice D, bicornuate uterus, is incorrect as hysterosalpingogram primarily evaluates tubal patency and uterine cavity shape, not specific uterine anomalies like a bicornuate uterus.
At which point in the pregnancy can a woman first feel fetal movement (quickening)?
- A. 12 weeks
- B. 16 weeks
- C. 20 weeks
- D. 24 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (20 weeks) because quickening, the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, typically occurs around this time. At 20 weeks, the fetus is large enough for its movements to be noticeable to the mother. Before 20 weeks, the fetus is too small and the movements are not strong enough to be felt. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are too early in the pregnancy for the mother to feel fetal movement. By 20 weeks, the fetus has developed enough for the mother to perceive its movements, making option C the correct answer.
Conjoined twins are formed at which point of gestation?
- A. Immediately after fertilization
- B. At the time of implantation
- C. At about 13 to 15 days after conception
- D. In the blastocyst stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conjoined twins are formed at about 13 to 15 days after conception when the embryonic disc undergoes incomplete splitting. At this stage, the cells have already differentiated into different layers, making separation challenging. Immediately after fertilization (choice A) is too early for conjoined twins to form. At the time of implantation (choice B) is when the blastocyst implants into the uterine wall, but conjoined twins are not formed at this point. In the blastocyst stage (choice D), the cells are still in the process of organizing and have not yet differentiated into distinct layers. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing of conjoined twin formation during embryonic development.
At 16 weeks of gestation a pregnant person states, 'The most dangerous time is the first 3 months, so I shouldn’t have to worry from now on about any dangers to the baby.' What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
- A. There are teratogens with the potential to harm your baby at any time during the pregnancy.
- B. We really won’t be able to say for sure before you have an ultrasound.
- C. You are correct. You are past the critical point.
- D. You don’t seem very concerned about your baby’s welfare.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because teratogens, substances that can harm the developing fetus, can have negative effects on the baby at any point during pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. The nurse's response should educate the pregnant person about the ongoing risks and the importance of avoiding harmful substances throughout pregnancy.
Option B is incorrect because an ultrasound is not used to assess the risk of teratogens. Option C is incorrect as it provides incorrect information that the risk is past, which is not true. Option D is incorrect as it is judgmental and does not address the pregnant person's misconception about the risks throughout pregnancy.