Nokea
The nurse is reviewing a prenatal client’s record. Which history finding increases the risk for preeclampsia?
- A. Advanced maternal age.
- B. History of gestational diabetes.
- C. First pregnancy.
- D. History of anemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: First pregnancy. Preeclampsia is more common in first pregnancies due to the body's lack of adaptation to the pregnancy. In subsequent pregnancies, the body has already gone through the changes necessary for pregnancy, reducing the risk. Advanced maternal age (A) and history of gestational diabetes (B) are risk factors for other pregnancy complications but not specifically preeclampsia. History of anemia (D) is not directly linked to an increased risk of preeclampsia.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient is seen in the primary care clinic for a sinus infection and is prescribed antibiotics. The only other medication that this patient currently takes is an oral contraceptive. What is the most important education the nurse must give to the patient regarding her medications?
- A. If you have nausea with this combination of medication, make sure to take them with food.
- B. You must use a backup method for contraception while taking antibiotics.
- C. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated with many antibiotics.
- D. No education is necessary; these medications do not interact.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by altering gut flora.
Step 2: Failure to use a backup method can lead to unintended pregnancy.
Step 3: Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the patient on using a backup method to prevent pregnancy.
Summary: Choice A is incorrect as nausea is not the main concern. Choice C is incorrect as not all antibiotics interact with oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as there is a potential interaction between antibiotics and oral contraceptives.
The nurse is preparing a client for a biophysical profile (BPP). What does this test evaluate?
- A. Maternal blood flow to the placenta.
- B. Fetal genetic abnormalities.
- C. Fetal well-being, including movements and amniotic fluid.
- D. Cervical dilation and effacement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fetal well-being, including movements and amniotic fluid. A Biophysical Profile evaluates the fetus' health by assessing factors like fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate patterns. This test provides valuable information about the fetus' well-being and helps in determining the need for interventions or further monitoring.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Maternal blood flow to the placenta is not evaluated by a Biophysical Profile.
B: Fetal genetic abnormalities are not assessed through a BPP; it focuses on the fetus' current well-being.
D: Cervical dilation and effacement are related to labor progress and not part of a BPP, which focuses on fetal well-being.
The client delivered a 4200 g fetus. The physician performed a
midline episiotomy which extended into a 3rd degree laceration. The
client asks the nurse where she tore. Which response is best?
- A. Through your rectal sphincter
- B. Through your vaginal mucosa
- C. Through your cervix
- D. Through your bladder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Through your rectal sphincter. A 3rd degree laceration involves the perineal body and extends through the anal sphincter muscles. This type of laceration can occur with a midline episiotomy during childbirth. The rectal sphincter is a part of the anal canal and can be torn in severe cases. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a 3rd degree laceration does not involve the vaginal mucosa, cervix, or bladder. The tear is specifically related to the rectal area due to the extension of the episiotomy.
What is an advantage of the internal condom?
- A. It can be used by those who have a latex allergy.
- B. It can be used for repeated acts of intercourse.
- C. It has a lower failure rate than external condoms.
- D. It can be used for pleasure purposes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the internal condom is made of nitrile, which is a non-latex material. This makes it suitable for individuals with latex allergies. Choice B is incorrect because both internal and external condoms can be used for repeated acts of intercourse. Choice C is incorrect because internal condoms do not necessarily have a lower failure rate than external condoms. Choice D is incorrect because while condoms can enhance pleasure during intercourse, the primary purpose of the internal condom is for protection rather than pleasure.
What should health-care providers be attentive to during the trauma-informed gynecologic examination to avoid retraumatization? Select all that apply.
- A. providing information about trauma support resources
- B. establishing safety and trust
- C. recognizing signs of distress and offering support
- D. using trauma-sensitive language and communication
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: The correct answer is B, C, and D.
B: Establishing safety and trust is crucial to avoid retraumatization during the examination. It helps create a secure environment for the patient.
C: Recognizing signs of distress and offering support shows empathy and helps address any emotional reactions that may arise during the examination.
D: Using trauma-sensitive language and communication is essential to avoid triggering past traumas and ensuring clear and respectful communication.
Choices A is incorrect because while providing information about trauma support resources is important, it is not directly related to avoiding retraumatization during the examination.