Pharmacology of Drugs Acting on Cardiovascular System Slideshare

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The nurse is reviewing medications used for depression. Which of these statements is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more widely prescribed today than tricyclic antidepressants?

  • A. SSRIs have fewer sexual side effects.
  • B. Unlike tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions.
  • C. Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs.
  • D. SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that even a small overdose can lead to severe toxicity, including cardiac dysrhythmias that can be life-threatening. This risk of overdose toxicity is a significant concern with tricyclic antidepressants and contributes to their decreased use compared to SSRIs.

A: SSRIs having fewer sexual side effects is not the primary reason for their wider use compared to tricyclic antidepressants. While this may be a consideration for some patients, it is not the main factor influencing prescribing patterns.

B: Drug-food interactions are indeed a concern with tricyclic antidepressants, but it is not the primary reason why SSRIs are more widely prescribed today. While SSRIs may have a lower risk of drug-food interactions, it is not the main driving factor behind their increased use.

D: While SSRIs may have

You may also like to solve these questions

Tick the antiandrogen drug:

  • A. Flutamide
  • B. Aminoglutethimide
  • C. Tamoxifen
  • D. Testosterone
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flutamide is the correct answer as it is a known antiandrogen drug used to treat conditions like prostate cancer. It works by blocking the action of androgens in the body. Aminoglutethimide is not an antiandrogen but an aromatase inhibitor. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used in breast cancer treatment. Testosterone is a natural male hormone and not an antiandrogen. Therefore, Flutamide is the correct choice for an antiandrogen drug.

Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:

  • A. Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators
  • B. Increased receptor sensitivity
  • C. Decreased metabolic degradation
  • D. Decreased renal tubular secretion
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators. Tolerance and drug resistance often occur due to changes in receptors, such as downregulation or desensitization, leading to decreased drug efficacy. Loss of receptors or exhaustion of mediators can also contribute to reduced drug response over time.

Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Increased receptor sensitivity would not lead to tolerance or drug resistance, as it would result in enhanced drug effects.
C: Decreased metabolic degradation would increase drug levels in the body, potentially leading to increased drug effects rather than tolerance.
D: Decreased renal tubular secretion may alter drug excretion but would not directly cause tolerance or drug resistance.

Which of the following agents is related to tricyclic antidepressants?

  • A. Nefazodon
  • B. Amitriptyline
  • C. Fluoxetine
  • D. Isocarboxazid
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amitriptyline. Tricyclic antidepressants, like Amitriptyline, have a tricyclic chemical structure. They work by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain. Nefazodone (A) is a serotonin modulator, Fluoxetine (C) is an SSRI, and Isocarboxazid (D) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, not related to tricyclic antidepressants.

Class of OKT-3 is:

  • A. Immunosuppressive agents
  • B. Monoclonal antibodies
  • C. Interferons
  • D. Immunoglobulins
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The class of OKT-3 is monoclonal antibodies. OKT-3 is a specific monoclonal antibody used for immunosuppression in organ transplant recipients. Monoclonal antibodies are designed to target specific antigens or proteins in the body. Other choices are incorrect as interferons are cytokines, immunoglobulins are antibodies produced by plasma cells, and immunosuppressive agents are a broad category that includes various drugs targeting the immune system.

Most of non-narcotic analgetics have:

  • A. Anti-inflammatory effect
  • B. Analgesic effect
  • C. Antipyretic effect
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Non-narcotic analgesics, such as NSAIDs and acetaminophen, have multiple effects including anti-inflammatory (A), analgesic (B), and antipyretic (C) effects. Anti-inflammatory effect helps reduce inflammation, analgesic effect helps relieve pain, and antipyretic effect helps reduce fever. Therefore, the correct answer is D as non-narcotic analgesics exhibit all these effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because non-narcotic analgesics do not have just one of these effects but rather a combination of all three.