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The nurse is teaching a patient about Follistim AQ, a medication prescribed for ovulation induction. What information should be included?
- A. Eggs or oocytes develop within ovarian follicles. The medication stimulates their development.
- B. Follistim is a manufactured form of FSH, a hormone released during the menstrual cycle.
- C. Rapid weight gain is typical during ovulation induction.
- D. Side effects include breast tenderness and changes in mood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Follistim AQ is a medication used for ovulation induction.
Step 2: The medication contains FSH, a hormone that stimulates follicular development.
Step 3: Eggs (oocytes) develop within ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle.
Step 4: Follistim AQ stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Step 5: Therefore, Option A is correct as it accurately explains how Follistim AQ works.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: While Follistim is a form of FSH, the key point is its role in stimulating follicular development, not just being a manufactured hormone.
C: Rapid weight gain is not a typical effect of ovulation induction with Follistim AQ.
D: Side effects like breast tenderness and mood changes may occur, but they are not the primary focus of educating a patient about how the medication works.
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What is the significance of a semen analysis in evaluating infertility?
- A. It determines the number, shape, and movement of sperm.
- B. It checks for genetic conditions affecting sperm.
- C. It monitors hormone levels in males.
- D. It identifies infections in the reproductive tract.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a semen analysis assesses important parameters such as sperm count, morphology (shape), and motility (movement), which are crucial factors in male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm available for fertilization. Morphology assesses the structural integrity of sperm, while motility determines their ability to reach and fertilize an egg. These parameters directly impact fertility potential.
Choice B is incorrect because a semen analysis does not specifically check for genetic conditions affecting sperm. Choice C is incorrect as hormone levels are not directly evaluated in a semen analysis. Choice D is incorrect because while infections can affect fertility, they are not the primary focus of a standard semen analysis.
A couple is seeking infertility counseling. During the history, it is noted that the man is a cancer survivor, drinks one beer every night with dinner, and takes a sauna every day after work. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. It is unlikely that any of these factors is affecting his fertility.
- B. Daily alcohol consumption could be causing his infertility problems.
- C. Sperm may be malformed when exposed to the heat of the sauna.
- D. Cancer survivors have the same fertility rates as healthy males.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Exposure to high temperatures, such as those in saunas, can impair spermatogenesis and lead to malformed sperm, making this a significant factor in male infertility.
A couple is considering ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) as part of IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. ICSI is only used for couples with unexplained infertility.
- B. ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg.
- C. ICSI guarantees fertilization and successful pregnancy.
- D. ICSI eliminates the need for ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg to facilitate fertilization. This method is used when there are issues with sperm quality or quantity. It is not limited to couples with unexplained infertility (choice A), does not guarantee successful pregnancy (choice C), and does not eliminate the need for ovarian stimulation (choice D). Therefore, choice B is the most accurate explanation of what ICSI entails.
A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
- A. Bed rest throughout the pregnancy.
- B. Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor.
- C. Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation.
- D. More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because more frequent ultrasounds are necessary to monitor the progression of the pregnancy in a patient with an incompetent cervix. This allows healthcare providers to assess the cervix's condition and the risk of preterm labor.
A: Bed rest is not the primary treatment for an incompetent cervix as it does not address the underlying issue.
B: A wait and see approach may lead to missed opportunities for preventive interventions.
C: Preparation for cerclage at 32 weeks is too late as cerclage is typically done earlier to provide support to the cervix.
A client is admitted to the labor and birthing suite in early labor. On review of her prenatal history, the nurse determines that the client's pelvic shape as identified in the antepartum notes is the most favorable one for a vaginal birth. Which pelvic shape would the nurse have noted?
- A. platypelloid
- B. gynecoid
- C. android
- D. anthropoid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvic shape is the most favorable for vaginal birth due to its optimal dimensions and orientation for the passage of the fetus. The anthropoid pelvis is also favorable for vaginal birth, but it is not the most favorable shape. The android pelvis and platypelloid pelvis are less favorable for vaginal birth, with the android pelvis having slow descent of the fetal head and the platypelloid pelvis often requiring cesarean birth.