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Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
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During a fertility consultation, a couple inquires about polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). What should the nurse include in the explanation?
- A. PCOS only affects a woman's menstrual cycle.
- B. PCOS can cause irregular ovulation and hormonal imbalances.
- C. PCOS is not related to weight or lifestyle factors.
- D. PCOS has no impact on fertility treatment outcomes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: PCOS is a complex hormonal disorder affecting women's reproductive systems.
Step 2: It can lead to irregular ovulation, making it difficult to conceive.
Step 3: Hormonal imbalances in PCOS can affect fertility by disrupting the menstrual cycle.
Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should include that PCOS can cause irregular ovulation and hormonal imbalances in the explanation.
Summary: Option B is correct as it highlights the key features of PCOS impacting fertility. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because PCOS affects more than just the menstrual cycle, it is related to weight and lifestyle factors, and it can impact fertility treatment outcomes.
What is the primary function of GnRH agonists in fertility treatments?
- A. To induce ovulation immediately.
- B. To suppress natural hormone production and control the cycle.
- C. To enhance the uterine lining for implantation.
- D. To increase sperm motility in male partners.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To suppress natural hormone production and control the cycle. GnRH agonists work by initially stimulating the release of certain hormones that eventually lead to the suppression of natural hormone production. This helps to control the menstrual cycle and prevent premature ovulation. Other choices are incorrect because A is typically achieved through other medications, C is more related to other fertility treatments like IVF, and D is not a primary function of GnRH agonists.
A woman, who has undergone amniocentesis, has been notified that her baby is XX with a 14/21 robertsonian chromosomal translocation. The nurse helps the woman to understand which of the following?
- A. The baby will have a number of serious genetic defects.
- B. It is likely that the baby will be unable to have children when she grows up.
- C. Chromosomal translocations are common and rarely problematic.
- D. An abortion will probably be the best decision under the circumstances.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Robertsonian translocations are generally asymptomatic and not problematic.
The nurse is teaching a patient about Follistim AQ, a medication prescribed for ovulation induction. What information should be included?
- A. Eggs or oocytes develop within ovarian follicles. The medication stimulates their development.
- B. Follistim is a manufactured form of FSH, a hormone released during the menstrual cycle.
- C. Rapid weight gain is typical during ovulation induction.
- D. Side effects include breast tenderness and changes in mood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Follistim AQ is a medication used for ovulation induction.
Step 2: The medication contains FSH, a hormone that stimulates follicular development.
Step 3: Eggs (oocytes) develop within ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle.
Step 4: Follistim AQ stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Step 5: Therefore, Option A is correct as it accurately explains how Follistim AQ works.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: While Follistim is a form of FSH, the key point is its role in stimulating follicular development, not just being a manufactured hormone.
C: Rapid weight gain is not a typical effect of ovulation induction with Follistim AQ.
D: Side effects like breast tenderness and mood changes may occur, but they are not the primary focus of educating a patient about how the medication works.
A nurse is teaching about sperm freezing for fertility preservation. What should be included in the education?
- A. Sperm freezing is only effective for men over 40 years old.
- B. Frozen sperm can be stored indefinitely with proper conditions.
- C. Sperm quality improves after freezing and thawing.
- D. Frozen sperm must be used within one year.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because frozen sperm can indeed be stored indefinitely with proper conditions such as constant low temperatures. This allows men to preserve their fertility for an extended period. Choice A is incorrect as sperm freezing is effective for men of all ages, not just those over 40. Choice C is incorrect because sperm quality may decline slightly after freezing and thawing. Choice D is incorrect as properly stored frozen sperm can maintain viability for many years, not just within one year.