Nokea
A client is receiving Pergonal (menotropins) intramuscularly for ovarian stimulation. Which of the following is a common side effect of this therapy?
- A. Piercing rectal pain.
- B. Mood swings.
- C. Visual disturbances.
- D. Jerky tremors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mood swings are a known side effect of hormonal therapies like Pergonal.
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What is the primary function of GnRH agonists in fertility treatments?
- A. To induce ovulation immediately.
- B. To suppress natural hormone production and control the cycle.
- C. To enhance the uterine lining for implantation.
- D. To increase sperm motility in male partners.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To suppress natural hormone production and control the cycle. GnRH agonists work by initially stimulating the release of certain hormones that eventually lead to the suppression of natural hormone production. This helps to control the menstrual cycle and prevent premature ovulation. Other choices are incorrect because A is typically achieved through other medications, C is more related to other fertility treatments like IVF, and D is not a primary function of GnRH agonists.
A client, G4 P4004, states that her husband has just been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), an autosomal dominant disease. The husband is heterozygous for PKD, while the client has no PKD genes. The client states, 'I have not had our children tested because they have such a slim chance of inheriting the disease. We intend to wait until they are teenagers to do the testing.' The nurse should base her reply on which of the following?
- A. Because affected individuals rarely exhibit symptoms before age 60
- B. the children should be allowed to wait until they are adults to be tested.
- C. The woman may be exhibiting signs of denial since each of the couple's children has a 50/50 chance of developing the disease.
- D. Because the majority of the renal cysts that develop in affected individuals are harmless
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each child of a heterozygous parent has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene.
Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
A nurse is counseling a couple about genetic testing options. What should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. Genetic testing is only available for known hereditary conditions.
- B. Preimplantation genetic testing is performed after embryo transfer.
- C. Genetic counseling is recommended for couples with a history of genetic disorders.
- D. Genetic testing cannot determine the risk of inherited infertility.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because genetic counseling is crucial for couples with a history of genetic disorders to assess risks and make informed decisions. It helps in understanding inheritance patterns, potential risks to offspring, and available testing options. Choice A is incorrect as genetic testing is not limited to known hereditary conditions. Choice B is incorrect as preimplantation genetic testing is done before embryo transfer. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing can indeed assess the risk of inherited infertility through various genetic tests.
A couple is considering ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) as part of IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. ICSI is only used for couples with unexplained infertility.
- B. ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg.
- C. ICSI guarantees fertilization and successful pregnancy.
- D. ICSI eliminates the need for ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg to facilitate fertilization. This method is used when there are issues with sperm quality or quantity. It is not limited to couples with unexplained infertility (choice A), does not guarantee successful pregnancy (choice C), and does not eliminate the need for ovarian stimulation (choice D). Therefore, choice B is the most accurate explanation of what ICSI entails.