Nokea
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of preconception education. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed?
- A. I know smoking is harmful in pregnancy, so I plan to quit soon. My husband has agreed to avoid smoking in my presence.
- B. I have started taking a daily prenatal vitamin with folic acid.
- C. My husband bought a small desk for his laptop computer.
- D. We plan to avoid the use of chemicals in our garden this year.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement about the husband buying a small desk for his laptop computer is irrelevant to preconception education. The focus of preconception education is on optimizing health before pregnancy, such as quitting smoking, taking prenatal vitamins, and avoiding harmful chemicals. The other choices (A, B, and D) all demonstrate an understanding of preconception health needs. Choice A shows awareness of the risks of smoking in pregnancy and a plan to quit. Choice B indicates the initiation of prenatal vitamin intake, particularly folic acid, which is crucial for preventing birth defects. Choice D highlights a proactive approach to environmental health by planning to avoid harmful chemicals in the garden.
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Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
Analyze the pedigree below. Which of the following inheritance patterns does the pedigree depict?
- A. Autosomal dominant.
- B. Mitochondrial inheritance.
- C. X-linked recessive.
- D. Y-linked trait.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pattern suggests autosomal dominant inheritance.
A nurse is counseling a couple about genetic testing options. What should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. Genetic testing is only available for known hereditary conditions.
- B. Preimplantation genetic testing is performed after embryo transfer.
- C. Genetic counseling is recommended for couples with a history of genetic disorders.
- D. Genetic testing cannot determine the risk of inherited infertility.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because genetic counseling is crucial for couples with a history of genetic disorders to assess risks and make informed decisions. It helps in understanding inheritance patterns, potential risks to offspring, and available testing options. Choice A is incorrect as genetic testing is not limited to known hereditary conditions. Choice B is incorrect as preimplantation genetic testing is done before embryo transfer. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing can indeed assess the risk of inherited infertility through various genetic tests.
A nurse is explaining the significance of luteal phase support in fertility treatments. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. It triggers ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- B. It involves supplementing progesterone to maintain the uterine lining.
- C. It enhances egg quality during ovarian stimulation.
- D. It prevents implantation failure by increasing estrogen levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Luteal phase support involves supplementing progesterone to maintain the uterine lining, crucial for implantation and early pregnancy support. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for implantation and helps sustain early pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect: A is incorrect as ovulation is triggered by the surge in luteinizing hormone, not luteal phase support. C is incorrect as egg quality is primarily influenced during ovarian stimulation, not luteal phase support. D is incorrect as estrogen is not the primary hormone involved in preventing implantation failure, it is progesterone.
A patient and her husband request to view the results of their infant's karyotype. An aneuploidy was noted. The nurse understands the results to indicate what?
- A. An abnormal number of chromosomes were present on the karyogram.
- B. Translocations were noted on some of the chromosomes.
- C. The infant's chromosomes had broken areas, causing an abnormality in the picture of the chromosomes.
- D. Some of the infant's chromosomes were duplicated to total 46 chromosomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes. An aneuploidy indicates an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result in genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. A karyotype shows the number, size, and shape of chromosomes, so an abnormal number of chromosomes on the karyogram is the correct interpretation.
Summary of Other Choices:
B: Translocations involve the movement of genetic material between chromosomes, not an abnormal number of chromosomes.
C: Chromosomal breaks would not typically result in an aneuploidy but rather structural abnormalities.
D: Duplication of chromosomes to total 46 would not lead to aneuploidy but rather a normal chromosome count.