Nokea
Infertility increases a client's risk of which of the following diseases?
- A. Diabetes mellitus.
- B. Nystagmus.
- C. Cholecystitis.
- D. Ovarian cancer.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infertility, particularly due to conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), increases the risk of ovarian cancer.
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A couple is seeking infertility counseling. During the history, it is noted that the man is a cancer survivor, drinks one beer every night with dinner, and takes a sauna every day after work. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. It is unlikely that any of these factors is affecting his fertility.
- B. Daily alcohol consumption could be causing his infertility problems.
- C. Sperm may be malformed when exposed to the heat of the sauna.
- D. Cancer survivors have the same fertility rates as healthy males.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Exposure to high temperatures, such as those in saunas, can impair spermatogenesis and lead to malformed sperm, making this a significant factor in male infertility.
A patient undergoing fertility treatments asks about the role of luteinizing hormone (LH). What should the nurse explain?
- A. LH stimulates the growth of the uterine lining.
- B. LH triggers ovulation by causing the release of a mature egg from the ovary.
- C. LH suppresses follicle development in the early cycle.
- D. LH is only important during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because LH triggers ovulation by causing the release of a mature egg from the ovary. LH surge occurs around mid-cycle, stimulating the mature follicle to rupture and release the egg. This is crucial for fertility and conception.
A is incorrect because LH does not stimulate the growth of the uterine lining; that is primarily regulated by estrogen and progesterone.
C is incorrect because LH actually promotes follicle development and maturation.
D is incorrect because LH is important for ovulation and not just during pregnancy.
A client, G4 P4004, states that her husband has just been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), an autosomal dominant disease. The husband is heterozygous for PKD, while the client has no PKD genes. The client states, 'I have not had our children tested because they have such a slim chance of inheriting the disease. We intend to wait until they are teenagers to do the testing.' The nurse should base her reply on which of the following?
- A. Because affected individuals rarely exhibit symptoms before age 60
- B. the children should be allowed to wait until they are adults to be tested.
- C. The woman may be exhibiting signs of denial since each of the couple's children has a 50/50 chance of developing the disease.
- D. Because the majority of the renal cysts that develop in affected individuals are harmless
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each child of a heterozygous parent has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene.
A patient asks about the benefits of Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) during IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. PGT is used to improve uterine health.
- B. It helps identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before transfer.
- C. PGT eliminates the need for regular fertility testing.
- D. It guarantees a healthy pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It helps identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before transfer. PGT is used during IVF to screen embryos for genetic conditions, allowing for the selection of healthy embryos for transfer, reducing the risk of passing genetic disorders to offspring. This is a crucial benefit of PGT as it helps in making informed decisions about embryo selection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because PGT focuses on genetic screening of embryos, not on improving uterine health, eliminating the need for fertility testing, or guaranteeing a healthy pregnancy.
A couple is considering ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) as part of IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. ICSI is only used for couples with unexplained infertility.
- B. ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg.
- C. ICSI guarantees fertilization and successful pregnancy.
- D. ICSI eliminates the need for ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg to facilitate fertilization. This method is used when there are issues with sperm quality or quantity. It is not limited to couples with unexplained infertility (choice A), does not guarantee successful pregnancy (choice C), and does not eliminate the need for ovarian stimulation (choice D). Therefore, choice B is the most accurate explanation of what ICSI entails.