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During a fertility evaluation, a patient learns about ovarian stimulation. What does this involve?
- A. Suppressing ovulation to regulate menstrual cycles.
- B. Using medications to increase the number of mature eggs produced.
- C. Monitoring hormone levels without medication.
- D. Performing surgery to retrieve eggs directly from the ovaries.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ovarian stimulation involves using medications to increase the number of mature eggs produced. This process is commonly used in fertility treatments like in vitro fertilization (IVF) to enhance the chances of successful fertilization. By stimulating the ovaries, multiple eggs can be retrieved, increasing the likelihood of successful conception.
Choice A is incorrect because suppressing ovulation is not the goal of ovarian stimulation; it is the opposite, to promote egg production. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring hormone levels alone does not involve the use of medications to stimulate egg production. Choice D is incorrect because surgery to retrieve eggs directly from the ovaries is a different procedure known as egg retrieval, not ovarian stimulation.
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What is the primary purpose of Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) in IVF?
- A. To increase the number of embryos available for transfer.
- B. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation.
- C. To enhance uterine receptivity for implantation.
- D. To stimulate egg production during ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation. PGT is used to screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation in IVF to prevent the transmission of genetic diseases to the offspring. By identifying abnormalities, only healthy embryos are selected for transfer, increasing the chances of a successful pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as PGT does not directly impact the number of embryos available (A), uterine receptivity (C), or egg production (D) during IVF.
A nurse is counseling a couple about genetic testing options. What should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. Genetic testing is only available for known hereditary conditions.
- B. Preimplantation genetic testing is performed after embryo transfer.
- C. Genetic counseling is recommended for couples with a history of genetic disorders.
- D. Genetic testing cannot determine the risk of inherited infertility.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because genetic counseling is crucial for couples with a history of genetic disorders to assess risks and make informed decisions. It helps in understanding inheritance patterns, potential risks to offspring, and available testing options. Choice A is incorrect as genetic testing is not limited to known hereditary conditions. Choice B is incorrect as preimplantation genetic testing is done before embryo transfer. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing can indeed assess the risk of inherited infertility through various genetic tests.
A patient and her husband request to view the results of their infant's karyotype. An aneuploidy was noted. The nurse understands the results to indicate what?
- A. An abnormal number of chromosomes were present on the karyogram.
- B. Translocations were noted on some of the chromosomes.
- C. The infant's chromosomes had broken areas, causing an abnormality in the picture of the chromosomes.
- D. Some of the infant's chromosomes were duplicated to total 46 chromosomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes. An aneuploidy indicates an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result in genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. A karyotype shows the number, size, and shape of chromosomes, so an abnormal number of chromosomes on the karyogram is the correct interpretation.
Summary of Other Choices:
B: Translocations involve the movement of genetic material between chromosomes, not an abnormal number of chromosomes.
C: Chromosomal breaks would not typically result in an aneuploidy but rather structural abnormalities.
D: Duplication of chromosomes to total 46 would not lead to aneuploidy but rather a normal chromosome count.
A woman asks the obstetrician's nurse about cord blood banking. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best?
- A. I think it would be best to ask the doctor to tell you about that.
- B. The cord blood is frozen in case your baby develops a serious illness in the future.
- C. The doctors could transfuse anyone who gets into a bad accident with the blood.
- D. Cord blood banking is very expensive and the blood is rarely ever used.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cord blood banking preserves stem cells for potential future medical use.
A nurse is explaining the significance of luteal phase support in fertility treatments. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. It triggers ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- B. It involves supplementing progesterone to maintain the uterine lining.
- C. It enhances egg quality during ovarian stimulation.
- D. It prevents implantation failure by increasing estrogen levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Luteal phase support involves supplementing progesterone to maintain the uterine lining, crucial for implantation and early pregnancy support. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for implantation and helps sustain early pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect: A is incorrect as ovulation is triggered by the surge in luteinizing hormone, not luteal phase support. C is incorrect as egg quality is primarily influenced during ovarian stimulation, not luteal phase support. D is incorrect as estrogen is not the primary hormone involved in preventing implantation failure, it is progesterone.