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A nurse manager is addressing reports of conflict within a nursing unit.
The nurse should identify which of the following situations as an example of interpersonal conflict?
- A. A nurse submits a complaint about another department's handoff reporting.
- B. A nurse feels stressed about an upcoming performance evaluation.
- C. A hospital policy change leads to disagreements among staff members.
- D. Two nurses disagree on how to handle a client's care plan.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves a conflict between two individuals, which is a key characteristic of interpersonal conflict. In this scenario, the conflict arises between two nurses regarding the client's care plan, indicating a disagreement in opinions or approaches. This type of conflict typically involves differences in perspectives, values, or goals between individuals. Choices A, B, and C do not involve direct conflicts between individuals but rather focus on complaints, stress, and policy disagreements that do not necessarily involve direct interpersonal conflicts. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate example of interpersonal conflict in this context.
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A charge nurse is teaching a new staff member about factors that increase a client's risk to become violent.
Which risk factor should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
- A. Previous violent behavior
- B. Low self-esteem
- C. Substance use disorder
- D. A history of depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence because past behavior is a strong indicator of future actions. Individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to exhibit violent tendencies again. Low self-esteem (B), substance use disorder (C), and a history of depression (D) can contribute to increased risk of violence, but they are not as reliable predictors as previous violent behavior. A history of violence is a key factor in assessing the potential for future violent acts.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Increased salivation
- C. Mild drowsiness
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shuffling gait. This is a potential extrapyramidal side effect of haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic. It is important to report this to the provider as it may indicate a serious adverse reaction called tardive dyskinesia. Increased salivation (choice B) and mild drowsiness (choice C) are common side effects that may resolve on their own. Weight gain (choice D) is more commonly associated with atypical antipsychotics. Choices E, F, and G are not provided.
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
- A. Digoxen 250 PO daily
- B. Metoprolol 50 mg PO twice daily
- C. Furosemide 40 mg IV once daily
- D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Digoxin is commonly prescribed in mcg, not mg. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the dosage unit. Metoprolol (B) is a typical dose and frequency for oral administration. Furosemide (C) is a standard dose and route for IV administration. Acetaminophen (D) is a common dose and frequency for pain management. The other choices are not problematic.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor.
The nurse should notify the provider for which of the following findings?
- A. Baseline fetal heart rate 115/min
- B. Three uterine contractions within 10 minutes
- C. Prolonged decelerations
- D. Moderate variability in the fetal heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prolonged decelerations. This finding indicates potential fetal distress, requiring immediate provider notification to assess and intervene. Baseline fetal heart rate (A) within normal range is reassuring. Three uterine contractions (B) could be normal. Moderate variability (D) is a positive sign of fetal well-being. The focus should be on abnormal findings like prolonged decelerations (C) that may indicate compromised fetal oxygenation.
A nurse is caring for a client who is alert and oriented and is receiving continuous ECG monitoring. The cardiac rhythm strips shows a wavy baseline, no distinguishable P waves, and an increased heart rate.
The nurse should identify the cardiac rhythm as which of the following?
- A. Ventricular asystole
- B. Second-degree heart block
- C. Sinus Tachycard
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and rapid heart rate. This can be identified on an ECG by the absence of distinct P waves and irregular R-R intervals. Ventricular asystole (A) is the absence of ventricular contractions, second-degree heart block (B) is characterized by intermittent conduction block between the atria and ventricles, and sinus tachycardia (C) is a regular rapid heart rate originating from the sinus node.