The pituitary FSH controls:
- A. the maturation of the ovarian follicles;
- B. the estrogen secretion;
- C. ovulation;
- D. the progesterone secretion;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pituitary FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) controls the maturation of ovarian follicles by stimulating their growth and development. FSH plays a crucial role in the early stages of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen secretion is primarily regulated by the ovaries, not FSH. Ovulation is mainly triggered by the surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone) levels, not FSH. Progesterone secretion is mainly controlled by the corpus luteum, which forms after ovulation, not directly by FSH. Therefore, the correct answer is A as FSH directly influences the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.
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Inhibin is
- A. is secreted by Sertoli cells to inhibit follicle stimulation hormone from the anterior pituitary.
- B. is secreted by the anterior pituitary to inhibit testosterone secretion.
- C. is secreted by Sertoli cells to inhibit testosterone secretion
- D. is secreted Leydig cells to inhibit Sertoli cells
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inhibin is secreted by Sertoli cells to inhibit follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) from the anterior pituitary. This is the correct answer because inhibin acts as a negative feedback mechanism to regulate FSH levels in the body. Sertoli cells are specifically involved in spermatogenesis and play a crucial role in regulating FSH secretion through inhibin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because inhibin does not inhibit testosterone secretion or act on Leydig cells. It specifically targets FSH secretion to regulate the process of spermatogenesis.
The glands that produce a thick, yellowish secretion which nourishes and activates sperm are the __
- A. bulbo-urethral glands
- B. prostate
- C. seminal glands (vesicles)
- D. ejaculatory duct
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: bulbo-urethral glands. These glands produce a thick, yellowish secretion known as pre-ejaculate or Cowper's fluid. It serves to nourish and activate sperm. The other choices are incorrect because:
B: The prostate gland produces a milky fluid that helps with sperm motility.
C: The seminal glands (vesicles) produce a fluid that provides energy for sperm.
D: The ejaculatory duct is a passageway for semen to leave the body, it does not produce any secretions.
A 68-yr-old male patient tells the nurse that he is worried because he does not respond to sexual stimulation the same way he did when he was younger. Which is the nurse’s best response to the patient’s concern?
- A. “Interest in sex frequently decreases as men get older.”
- B. “Many men need additional sexual stimulation with aging.”
- C. “Erectile dysfunction is a common problem with older men.”
- D. “Tell me more about how your sexual response has change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Many men need additional sexual stimulation with aging." With aging, physiological changes can affect sexual response. Additional stimulation may be required due to lower hormone levels and decreased sensitivity. This response acknowledges the patient's concern and provides a factual explanation.
Incorrect answers:
A: "Interest in sex frequently decreases as men get older." - While libido may decrease with age, it doesn't directly address the patient's concern about sexual response.
C: "Erectile dysfunction is a common problem with older men." - Erectile dysfunction is only one aspect of sexual response and may not be the main issue for the patient.
D: "Tell me more about how your sexual response has changed." - While this shows empathy, it doesn't provide information or address the potential need for additional stimulation.
The reproductive cycle of a human is usually regulated by
- A. gametes
- B. hormones
- C. natural selection
- D. immune responses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: hormones. Hormones play a crucial role in regulating the human reproductive cycle by controlling the release of gametes and coordinating the processes of ovulation and menstruation. Hormones such as estrogen and progesterone interact with the reproductive organs to maintain the menstrual cycle and facilitate fertility. Natural selection (C) is the mechanism of evolution, not directly related to regulating the reproductive cycle. Immune responses (D) are involved in protecting the body from pathogens, not in regulating the reproductive cycle. Gametes (A) are the reproductive cells, but they are not responsible for regulating the reproductive cycle.
A female athlete who took testosterone-like steroids for several months stopped having normal menstrual cycles. What is the best explanation for this observation?
- A. Testosterone stimulates inhibin production from the corpus luteum
- B. Testosterone binds to receptors in the endometrium, resulting in the endometrium’s failure to develop during the normal cycle
- C. Testosterone binds to receptors in the anterior pituitary that stimulate the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
- D. Testosterone inhibits the hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and the pituitary secretion of LH and FSH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testosterone inhibits the hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and the pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). This disruption in the normal hormonal feedback loop leads to the suppression of ovulation and the menstrual cycle. Option A is incorrect because inhibin is not directly affected by testosterone. Option B is incorrect as testosterone does not bind to endometrial receptors directly. Option C is incorrect because testosterone does not stimulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.