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The provider has ordered intramuscular (IM) injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain in a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware this drug has a high abuse potential. Under what category would morphine be classified?
- A. Schedule I.
- B. Schedule III.
- C. Schedule IV.
- D. Schedule II.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Schedule II. Morphine is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and risk of dependence. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse, which does not apply to morphine. Schedule III and IV drugs have lower abuse potential compared to Schedule II drugs. Therefore, morphine being a potent narcotic with a high abuse potential places it in Schedule II.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is the action of ergotamine?
- A. Increases hypoperfusion of basilar artery vascular bed.
- B. Decreases hypoperfusion of basilar artery vascular bed.
- C. Increases hyperperfusion of basilar artery vascular bed.
- D. Decreases hyperperfusion of basilar artery vascular bed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hyperperfusion of basilar artery vascular bed. Ergotamine is a vasoconstrictor that acts on serotonin receptors, reducing blood flow and decreasing hyperperfusion in the basilar artery. This helps in treating conditions like migraines by reducing the dilation of blood vessels. Choice A is incorrect because ergotamine does not increase hypoperfusion, but rather decreases hyperperfusion. Choice B is incorrect as ergotamine does not decrease hypoperfusion. Choice C is incorrect since ergotamine does not increase hyperperfusion, rather it decreases it.
When the nurse administers a cholinergic agonist to the patient the nurse's expectation is what system will be stimulated.
- A. Central nervous system.
- B. Parasympathetic nervous system.
- C. Sympathetic nervous system.
- D. Voluntary nervous system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Parasympathetic nervous system. Cholinergic agonists stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system by mimicking the action of acetylcholine, the neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system. This leads to increased activity in organs innervated by the parasympathetic system, such as slowing heart rate and increasing gastrointestinal motility.
A: Central nervous system - Cholinergic agonists primarily act on the peripheral nervous system, not the central nervous system.
C: Sympathetic nervous system - Cholinergic agonists do not stimulate the sympathetic nervous system; they have opposite effects.
D: Voluntary nervous system - Cholinergic agonists do not directly affect the voluntary nervous system, which controls skeletal muscles.
A nurse admits an older patient to the emergency room with reports of shortness of breath on exertion and a productive cough. The nurse reviews the patient's current medications and the patient says, “I take one pink pill every morning.†The nurse asks the name of the drug and the patient says she doesn't know. This happens with four other medications the patient says she takes. What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Ineffective health maintenance.
- B. Noncompliance.
- C. Acute confusion.
- D. Risk-prone health behavior.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective health maintenance. This diagnosis is appropriate because the patient's inability to identify their medications indicates a lack of understanding and engagement in managing their own health. The patient's confusion about their medications can lead to noncompliance and potential health risks. The other choices are not as appropriate because the patient's issue is related to a lack of knowledge and understanding rather than deliberate noncompliance (B), acute confusion (C), or a risky behavior (D). To address the issue, the nurse should focus on education and support to improve the patient's health maintenance skills.
A nursing student asks the nurse to differentiate the pathology of Alzheimer's disease from that of Parkinson's disease. Which description is correct?
- A. Parkinson's disease is characterized by an imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine.
- B. Parkinson disease involves increased dopamine production and decreased acetylcholine.
- C. Alzheimer's disease is caused by decreased amount of dopamine and degeneration of cholinergic neurons.
- D. Alzheimer's disease involves a possible excess of acetylcholine and neuritic plaques.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In Parkinson's disease, there is a reduction in dopamine levels due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain. This imbalance leads to motor symptoms such as tremors and rigidity. In contrast, Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, leading to neuronal cell death and cognitive decline. The incorrect choices can be eliminated as follows: B is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is associated with a decrease, not an increase, in dopamine levels. C is incorrect as Alzheimer's disease is not primarily characterized by decreased dopamine levels but rather by the accumulation of plaques and tangles. D is incorrect as Alzheimer's disease is not associated with an excess of acetylcholine but rather a decrease in its levels. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it accurately describes the pathology of Parkinson's disease.
Which of the following is an adverse reaction to topical nasal steroid?
- A. Rebound effect.
- B. Local ulceration.
- C. Increased nasal drainage.
- D. Suppression of healing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Local ulceration. Topical nasal steroids can cause local irritation, leading to ulceration in the nasal mucosa. This occurs due to the steroid's potent anti-inflammatory effects on the nasal tissues. Rebound effect (choice A) is associated with nasal decongestant sprays, not nasal steroids. Increased nasal drainage (choice C) is not typically an adverse reaction to nasal steroids. Suppression of healing (choice D) is not a common side effect of topical nasal steroids.