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The reasons for the nurse wishing to enhance his/her communication skill is to be able to establish Rapport, EXCEPT
- A. brings about change to promote well-being of patients
- B. decreased incidents
- C. gets better evaluation rating of care and delivery of legal problems
- D. generates threat between the nurse and the patient
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary goal of enhancing communication skills for a nurse is to establish rapport with patients, which can lead to better outcomes, increased patient satisfaction, and improved quality of care. Generating a threat between the nurse and the patient is counterproductive to building rapport and does not align with the intention of enhancing communication skills in healthcare settings.
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Primary care nursing is organized so that the patient is at the center of the structure. How many nurses have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination?
- A. One
- B. Three
- C. Two
- D. Four
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In primary care nursing, typically, one nurse is designated to have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination for each patient. This helps ensure continuity of care and accountability. By having one nurse overseeing all aspects of the patient's care, it allows for a more personalized and coordinated approach that puts the patient at the center of the care structure. Having one primary care nurse also promotes better communication, efficiency, and consistency in managing the patient's health and well-being.
Nurse Pat promised to a post- surgical patient, that she would come back to assist in his of ambulation after carrying out the physician's order. This follows the principle
- A. beneficence
- B. autonomy
- C. justice
- D. fidelity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fidelity is a principle in nursing ethics that pertains to being faithful or loyal to commitments and promises made to patients. When Nurse Pat promised to come back to assist in the patient's ambulation after carrying out the physician's order, she is demonstrating fidelity by fulfilling her commitment to the patient's care. This principle helps build trust between the nurse and the patient, ensuring continuity and quality of care.
A pregnant woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. On examination, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are noted, along with bilateral adnexal masses. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The constellation of severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge in a pregnant woman raises suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are classic physical exam findings for PID. The presence of bilateral adnexal masses further supports the diagnosis, as PID can lead to the formation of tubo-ovarian abscesses. Ectopic pregnancy may present with similar symptoms but is less likely in this case as bilateral adnexal masses suggest a more diffuse inflammatory process. Placenta previa would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Ovarian torsion would present with sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain and is less likely to involve both ovaries simultaneously.
A patient presents with knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee. Physical examination reveals a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line. McMurray's test elicits pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation. Which condition is most likely?
- A. Patellar tendinitis
- B. Medial meniscus tear
- C. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain
- D. uadriceps tendon rupture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee, along with a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line, is highly suggestive of a meniscus injury. The McMurray's test specifically evaluates for meniscal tears. In this case, the presence of pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation indicates a medial meniscus tear as the most likely diagnosis. Patellar tendinitis usually presents with anterior knee pain that is worsened by activities such as jumping or running. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain typically presents with lateral knee pain and instability. Quadriceps tendon rupture would present with significant weakness and inability to fully extend the knee, which is not described in this scenario.
Which of the following actions is indicated in the management of a patient with an open chest wound (sucking chest wound)?
- A. Applying a sterile dressing and occlusive dressing.
- B. Administering supplemental oxygen.
- C. Providing reassurance and emotional support.
- D. Elevating the patient's legs to improve venous return.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An open chest wound, also known as a sucking chest wound, can lead to a collapsed lung and respiratory distress. Immediate management involves sealing the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space and further compromising the patient's respiratory function. Applying a sterile dressing over the wound helps to prevent contamination and occluding the wound with an airtight covering, such as an occlusive dressing, can effectively reduce the risk of a tension pneumothorax, a serious complication that can arise from a sucking chest wound. These interventions help to stabilize the patient's condition and improve the chances of a successful recovery. Administering supplemental oxygen, though beneficial, would be secondary to the primary management of sealing the chest wound. Providing emotional support is important but addressing the physical emergency takes precedence. Elevating the patient's legs would not be appropriate in managing an open chest wound.