The spermatozoon:
- A. is the primordial male cell;
- B. is a microscopic cell;
- C. forms within the interstitial cells;
- D. is a diploid cell;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the spermatozoon is indeed the primordial male cell, the precursor to all other male reproductive cells. Choice B is incorrect because the term "microscopic cell" is too broad and does not specifically define the spermatozoon. Choice C is incorrect because spermatozoa are actually formed within the seminiferous tubules of the testes, not the interstitial cells. Choice D is incorrect because spermatozoa are haploid cells, not diploid. Therefore, only choice A accurately describes the nature and origin of the spermatozoon.
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What factor will inhibit LH secretion?
- A. FSH
- B. progesterone
- C. estrogen
- D. LH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: progesterone. Progesterone inhibits LH secretion by exerting negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. This hormone signals that the body has enough progesterone and does not need additional LH for ovulation. FSH (choice A) stimulates LH secretion, estrogen (choice C) typically increases LH secretion during the menstrual cycle, and LH (choice D) does not inhibit its own secretion.
The Fallopian tubes:
- A. are pair muscular-membranous ducts;
- B. are part of the female genital ducts;
- C. are located between ovary and uterus;
- D. capture the ovule released by the ovary;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the Fallopian tubes are indeed located between the ovary and the uterus. This is essential for the transportation of the released ovum from the ovary to the uterus for possible fertilization. Choice A is incorrect as the Fallopian tubes are not solely muscular-membranous ducts; they have ciliated epithelial cells aiding in the movement of the ovum. Choice B is too broad, as the Fallopian tubes are just one part of the female reproductive system. Choice D is incorrect because the Fallopian tubes do not capture the ovule; rather, they provide a pathway for its transport.
Regarding gross anatomy of male reproductive system
- A. Dartos muscle is responsible to raise and lower the testes
- B. Ductus deferens penetrate the prostate gland to connect with prostatic urethra
- C. Anterior lobe of prostate gland is the main glandular tissue
- D. Buck's fascia encloses body of penis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the ductus deferens penetrates the prostate gland to connect with the prostatic urethra, forming the ejaculatory duct. This allows for the transport of sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation.
A: Dartos muscle is responsible for wrinkling the scrotal skin but not raising and lowering the testes.
C: The anterior lobe of the prostate gland mainly consists of fibromuscular tissue, not glandular tissue.
D: Buck's fascia surrounds the corpora cavernosa and the corpus spongiosum of the penis, not the body of the penis itself.
The nurse will plan to teach a 51-yr-old man who is scheduled for an annual physical examination about a(n)
- A. increased risk for testicular cancer.
- B. possible changes in erectile function.
- C. normal decreases in testosterone level.
- D. prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: normal decreases in testosterone level. At the age of 51, it is important to educate the man about the normal age-related decline in testosterone levels, which can affect various aspects of health. This information will help manage expectations and address potential symptoms. Option A is incorrect as testicular cancer risk typically decreases with age. Option B may be a concern but is not the primary focus of education for a routine physical exam. Option D (PSA testing) is more relevant for prostate health, which is not the main focus of education for a 51-year-old man's annual physical exam.
A client with the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) undergoes a viral shedding. Which of the following statements is true when caring for a client with HSV-2?
- A. An outbreak of the HSV-2 infection is often self-limiting and hence a treatment may be unnecessary.
- B. Clients don't seek treatment because of embarrassment.
- C. Healthcare providers and laboratories are not required by law to report.
- D. Reporting is up to the client, not the provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HSV-2 outbreaks are often self-limiting, though antiviral medications can help manage symptoms.