Nokea
The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a common site of cervical dysplasia and HPV related cancer. What epithelial transition is seen here?
- A. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple columnar
- B. Vaginal simple columnar to cervical simple squamous
- C. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified columnar
- D. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar. The transition from stratified squamous epithelium in the vagina to simple columnar epithelium in the cervix is known as the squamocolumnar junction. This transition zone is where cervical dysplasia and HPV-related cancer commonly occur. The stratified squamous epithelium of the vagina provides protection against abrasion, while the simple columnar epithelium of the cervix produces mucus for fertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the epithelial transition seen at this specific location.
You may also like to solve these questions
Elbow, knee are _____ type of joints
- A. Ball-an
- B. socket
- C. Hinge
- D. Pivot
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hinge. Elbow and knee joints are classified as hinge joints because they primarily allow movement in one plane, similar to a door hinge. These joints enable flexion and extension movements, which are characteristic of hinge joints. The other choices (A: Ball-and-socket, B: Socket, D: Pivot) do not accurately describe the structure and function of the elbow and knee joints. Ball-and-socket joints allow for a wider range of motion in multiple directions, sockets are components of ball-and-socket joints, and pivot joints allow rotational movement around a central axis, none of which align with the movement pattern of the elbow and knee joints. Therefore, the correct classification for elbow and knee joints is hinge joints due to their specific range of motion.
During the 12-hr period preceding ovulation, which of the following is true?
- A. The plasma concentration of estrogen is rising
- B. A surge of luteinizing hormone is secreted from the pituitary
- C. The surge occurs immediately after the formation of the corpus luteum
- D. The surge followed immediately by a fall in the plasma concentration of progesterone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) is necessary for ovulation to occur, typically happening 24-36 hours before ovulation. This surge triggers the release of the mature egg from the ovarian follicle. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as estrogen levels peak just before ovulation, the corpus luteum forms after ovulation, and progesterone levels rise after ovulation, not fall immediately after the LH surge.
Delayed breathing at birth is a common danger faced by newborn infants. What is a frequent cause of delayed breathing?
- A. Fetal hypoxia during the birth process
- B. Maternal hypoxia during the birth process
- C. Fetal hypercapnia
- D. Maternal hypercapnia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fetal hypoxia during the birth process. Fetal hypoxia, which is a lack of oxygen to the fetus during birth, can lead to delayed breathing in newborn infants. This lack of oxygen can result from various factors such as umbilical cord compression or placental insufficiency. Maternal hypoxia (choice B) and hypercapnia (choices C and D) may affect the fetus indirectly but are not direct causes of delayed breathing in newborns. Therefore, the correct choice is A, as it directly addresses the specific cause of delayed breathing in newborn infants.
Men who take large doses of testosterone-like androgenic steroids for long periods are sterile in the reproductive sense of the word. What is the explanation for this finding?
- A. High levels of androgens bind to testosterone receptors in the Sertoli cells, resulting in overstimulation of inhibin formation
- B. Overstimulation of sperm cell production results in the formation of defective sperm cells
- C. High levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus, resulting in the inhibition of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone release by the anterior pituitary
- D. High levels of androgen compounds produce hypertrophic dysfunction of the prostate gland
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because high levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH is responsible for stimulating the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) by the anterior pituitary gland. LH and FSH are crucial for proper testicular function, including sperm production. When the secretion of GnRH is inhibited by high levels of androgens, it leads to a decrease in LH and FSH levels, ultimately disrupting the normal feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. This disruption results in impaired sperm production and fertility.
Choice A is incorrect because overstimulation of inhibin formation does not directly lead to sterility. Choice B is incorrect because overstimulation of sperm cell production would not result in the formation of defective sperm cells leading to sterility. Choice D is incorrect because hypert
A 67-year-old male client had some serum tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 680 ng/dL; prostate-specific antigen: 10 ng/mL; prolactin: 5 ng/mL. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge.
- B. Note the possibility of a testicular tumor.
- C. Communicate to the provider that results were normal
- D. Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing. A testosterone level of 680 ng/dL is high for a 67-year-old male, which could indicate an underlying medical condition. A prostate-specific antigen level of 10 ng/mL is elevated and could suggest prostate issues. Prolactin level of 5 ng/mL is within normal range but still needs further evaluation due to the other abnormal results. Therefore, preparing the client for further diagnostic testing is crucial to investigate the potential underlying health concerns.
Incorrect options:
A: Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge - Irrelevant as galactorrhea is not indicated by the given results.
B: Note the possibility of a testicular tumor - Testosterone level elevation is more indicative of non-testicular issues.
C: Communicate to the provider that results were normal - Results are not normal, warranting further evaluation.