Nokea
Why is osteoporosis much more common in elderly women than in elderly men?
- A. Men continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, whereas women cease estrogen production after menopause
- B. Women consume less dietary calcium than men
- C. Gastrointestinal absorption of calcium is more effective in men than in women
- D. The bones of women contain less calcium than those of men even before menopause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density.
Step 2: Estrogen helps regulate bone turnover and calcium balance.
Step 3: Women experience a significant drop in estrogen levels after menopause.
Step 4: Decreased estrogen production leads to increased bone resorption.
Step 5: Men, on the other hand, continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, which helps maintain bone density.
Summary: A is correct because men maintain testosterone production, while women cease estrogen production after menopause, leading to a higher risk of osteoporosis in elderly women. B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the hormonal changes that contribute to osteoporosis gender disparity.
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What area experiences the greatest changes in a menstrual cycle?
- A. vagina
- B. perimetrium
- C. cervix
- D. endometrium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: endometrium. The endometrium undergoes the most significant changes during the menstrual cycle. It thickens and sheds in response to hormonal changes for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. The vagina (A), perimetrium (B), and cervix (C) do not experience the same level of cyclic changes as the endometrium. The vagina is primarily a passageway, the perimetrium is the outer layer of the uterus, and the cervix mainly functions as an opening to the uterus. Therefore, the endometrium is the area that experiences the greatest changes in a menstrual cycle due to its role in preparing for possible pregnancy and shedding if implantation does not occur.
A client is concerned about her irregular menstrual periods since she has increased her daily workouts at the gym to 2 hours each day. What is the nurses’ best response?
- A. “Do you want to talk about the need for that much exercise?”
- B. “Exercise is healthy but can decrease body fat and cause irregular periods.”
- C. “Bingeing and purging can cause electrolyte problems in your body.”
- D. “Anorexic behavior can result in decreased estrogen levels.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
The correct answer is B because excessive exercise can lead to decreased body fat, which in turn disrupts hormone levels causing irregular periods. Choice A is inappropriate as it doesn't address the underlying issue. Choices C and D are incorrect as they refer to different conditions (bulimia and anorexia) not related to the client's concern.
Your 20 year old male patient is c/o growths on his penile shaft. He noticed them first about 6 weeks ago, and he thinks there are more now. Denies pain with intercourse or urination. He has had 3 former partners and has been with his current girlfriend for 6 months. She is on the pill so they do not use condoms. Denies fever, weight loss, night sweats. His PMH is unremarkable. He is in college part time and works in construction and is engaged to be married and has no children. On exam, you see several moist papules along all sides of the penile shaft and two on the corona. He has been circumcised. On palpation of his inguinal region there is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which abnormality of the penis does this patient most likely have?
- A. Condylomata acuminata
- B. Genital herpes
- C. Syphilitic chancre
- D. Penile carcinoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Condylomata acuminata (genital warts) based on the patient's presentation of painless moist papules on the penile shaft and corona, multiple sexual partners, lack of other systemic symptoms, and absence of inguinal lymphadenopathy. This is consistent with HPV infection, the most likely cause of genital warts. Genital herpes (B) typically presents as painful vesicles or ulcers, syphilitic chancre (C) presents as a painless ulcer, and penile carcinoma (D) usually presents as a solitary, indurated, ulcerated lesion with associated lymphadenopathy.
The ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation is the
- A. Menstrual phase
- B. Preovulatory phase
- C. Proliferative phase
- D. Follicular phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During this phase, the endometrium thickens in preparation for a potential implantation of a fertilized egg. This phase occurs after the menstrual phase and before ovulation, marking the time when the ovarian follicles are developing under the influence of FSH. The other choices are incorrect because the menstrual phase (A) refers to the shedding of the endometrium, the preovulatory phase (B) occurs just before ovulation, and the follicular phase (D) includes both the menstrual and preovulatory phases.
A 67-year-old male client had some serum tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 680 ng/dL; prostate-specific antigen: 10 ng/mL; prolactin: 5 ng/mL. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge.
- B. Note the possibility of a testicular tumor.
- C. Communicate to the provider that results were normal
- D. Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing. A testosterone level of 680 ng/dL is high for a 67-year-old male, which could indicate an underlying medical condition. A prostate-specific antigen level of 10 ng/mL is elevated and could suggest prostate issues. Prolactin level of 5 ng/mL is within normal range but still needs further evaluation due to the other abnormal results. Therefore, preparing the client for further diagnostic testing is crucial to investigate the potential underlying health concerns.
Incorrect options:
A: Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge - Irrelevant as galactorrhea is not indicated by the given results.
B: Note the possibility of a testicular tumor - Testosterone level elevation is more indicative of non-testicular issues.
C: Communicate to the provider that results were normal - Results are not normal, warranting further evaluation.