Nokea
Arterial supply of breast include
- A. Internal thoracic artery
- B. Thoracoaromial artery
- C. Superior epigastric artery
- D. Common carotid artery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Internal thoracic artery. The internal thoracic artery is a major branch of the subclavian artery and supplies the breast tissue. It gives rise to the perforating branches that supply the breast. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the thoracoaromial artery primarily supplies the upper limb, the superior epigastric artery supplies the anterior abdominal wall, and the common carotid artery supplies the head and neck, but not the breast tissue. Therefore, based on the anatomical knowledge of arterial supply, the internal thoracic artery is the correct choice for the arterial supply of the breast.
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Why is osteoporosis much more common in elderly women than in elderly men?
- A. Men continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, whereas women cease estrogen production after menopause
- B. Women consume less dietary calcium than men
- C. Gastrointestinal absorption of calcium is more effective in men than in women
- D. The bones of women contain less calcium than those of men even before menopause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density.
Step 2: Estrogen helps regulate bone turnover and calcium balance.
Step 3: Women experience a significant drop in estrogen levels after menopause.
Step 4: Decreased estrogen production leads to increased bone resorption.
Step 5: Men, on the other hand, continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, which helps maintain bone density.
Summary: A is correct because men maintain testosterone production, while women cease estrogen production after menopause, leading to a higher risk of osteoporosis in elderly women. B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the hormonal changes that contribute to osteoporosis gender disparity.
Elbow, knee are _____ type of joints
- A. Ball-an
- B. socket
- C. Hinge
- D. Pivot
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hinge. Elbow and knee joints are classified as hinge joints because they primarily allow movement in one plane, similar to a door hinge. These joints enable flexion and extension movements, which are characteristic of hinge joints. The other choices (A: Ball-and-socket, B: Socket, D: Pivot) do not accurately describe the structure and function of the elbow and knee joints. Ball-and-socket joints allow for a wider range of motion in multiple directions, sockets are components of ball-and-socket joints, and pivot joints allow rotational movement around a central axis, none of which align with the movement pattern of the elbow and knee joints. Therefore, the correct classification for elbow and knee joints is hinge joints due to their specific range of motion.
Which of the following would a nurse suggest for a client with an inflammation of the prostate gland?
- A. Treat the client and also his sexual partners.
- B. Avoid standing for long periods and foods that cause diarrhea.
- C. No masturbation or sexual intercourse until treated.
- D. Avoid foods that may cause acidity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abstinence from sexual activity until treatment is complete helps prevent exacerbation and transmission.
The evolutionary stages of the ovarian follicles are:
- A. secondary;
- B. tertiary (de Graaf);
- C. primordial;
- D. evolutionary;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: primordial. Ovarian follicles go through several stages of development. Primordial follicles are the earliest stage, containing primary oocytes surrounded by a single layer of squamous cells. This stage represents the resting pool of follicles. Secondary follicles come next, with primary oocytes surrounded by multiple layers of granulosa cells. Tertiary (de Graaf) follicles are the most advanced stage, containing a fluid-filled antrum and a mature oocyte. Evolutionary is not a recognized stage in ovarian follicle development. Secondary is incorrect as it comes after primordial, and tertiary is incorrect as it is not the earliest stage.
After having a modified radical mastectomy, a client is transferred to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). All of these actions are included in the routine post-operative care for clients who have had this procedure. Which is best to delegate to an experienced LPN?
- A. Monitor client's dressing for any signs of bleeding.
- B. Document the initial assessment on client's chart.
- C. Call client's status report to the charge nurse on the surgical unit.
- D. Teach client about the importance of using pain medication as needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the dressing for signs of bleeding is within the scope of practice for an LPN.