Nokea
Threatening to harm a resident if he tells another caregiver about a problem is an example of which type of abuse?
- A. Physical abuse
- B. Psychological abuse
- C. Financial abuse
- D. Substance abuse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Psychological abuse. Threatening harm to prevent disclosure is a form of emotional manipulation and control, causing fear and distress. Physical abuse (A) involves physical harm, not just threats. Financial abuse (C) involves exploitation for financial gain, not threats. Substance abuse (D) pertains to the misuse of drugs or alcohol, not threats of harm. In this scenario, the focus is on the mental and emotional impact of the threat, hence it falls under psychological abuse.
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A 29-year-old male is brought to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicular collision when his car struck a bridge abutment. He is intoxicated, has GCS 13, and complains of abdominal pain. His BP was 80mmHg systolic by palpation on admission, but rapidly increased to 110/70 with the administration of IV flui His heart rate is 120/min. The chest x-ray shows loss of aortic knob, widening of mediastinum, no rib fracture, and no hemopneumothorax. Contrast angiography:
- A. "Is not indicated"
- B. Should be performed after CT scan of the chest
- C. Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases
- D. Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in this scenario, the patient presents with signs suspicious of aortic injury, indicated by the widened mediastinum on chest x-ray. However, the definitive test for aortic injury is a CT scan of the chest, which is more sensitive and specific than contrast angiography. If the CT scan is normal, it effectively rules out aortic injury, making further imaging with contrast angiography unnecessary. Performing angiography in this case would expose the patient to unnecessary risks without providing additional diagnostic value. Therefore, the correct approach is to first perform a CT scan of the chest, and if it is normal, no further imaging is required.
Choice A is incorrect as contrast angiography is indicated in suspected aortic injury cases. Choice B is incorrect as performing contrast angiography after a CT scan would be redundant and expose the patient to unnecessary risks. Choice C is incorrect as the accuracy of contrast angiography in diagnosing aortic rupture is not as high as indicated in the
A type of depression that causes a person to have mood swings is called
- A. Delirium
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Obsessive-convulsive disorder
- D. Hemianopsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder is characterized by mood swings between periods of mania and depression. This type of depression involves extreme shifts in mood and energy levels. Delirium (A) is a state of confusion and disorientation. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (C) is an anxiety disorder characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. Hemianopsia (D) is a visual impairment where half of the visual field is lost. Bipolar disorder is the only choice related to mood swings, making it the correct answer.
Ageism is
- A. The natural process of aging
- B. Disabilities that occur with aging
- C. Prejudice toward or discrimination against the elderly
- D. The loss of memory associated with aging
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ageism refers to prejudice or discrimination against individuals based on their age, particularly targeting the elderly. This bias can lead to unfair treatment, stereotyping, and exclusion of older adults. The other choices are incorrect because aging itself is a natural process, disabilities can occur at any age, and memory loss is just one aspect of aging, not the definition of ageism.
At what point in an NA's employment would a probationary performance review be completed?
- A. At 6 months
- B. At 9 months
- C. At 18 months
- D. At 3 months
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: At 3 months. A probationary performance review is typically conducted early in an employee's tenure to assess their performance and suitability for the role. This review occurs at 3 months to provide timely feedback and address any concerns early on. Waiting until 6, 9, or 18 months would be too late to address any performance issues or make necessary adjustments. Therefore, conducting the probationary review at 3 months allows for effective evaluation and support for the new employee.
The medical term for nosebleed is
- A. Epidermis
- B. Epiglottis
- C. Emesis
- D. Epistaxis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Epistaxis. "Epistaxis" is the medical term for nosebleed. "Epi-" means above or upon, and "staxis" refers to dripping or oozing. Therefore, "epistaxis" specifically refers to bleeding from the nose.
A: Epidermis refers to the outermost layer of skin, not related to nosebleeds.
B: Epiglottis is the flap of tissue that covers the trachea during swallowing, not related to nosebleeds.
C: Emesis refers to vomiting, not related to nosebleeds.
In summary, the correct answer is D because it is the term specifically used to describe bleeding from the nose, while the other choices are unrelated terms in the context of nosebleeds.