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What additional assessment is required for the postoperative care of a pregnant woman who undergoes abdominal surgery for appendicitis?
- A. Intake and output (I&O) and intravenous (IV) site.
- B. Signs and symptoms of infection.
- C. Vital signs and incision.
- D. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct additional assessment for postoperative care of a pregnant woman requiring abdominal surgery for appendicitis is monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity. This is crucial due to the presence of the fetus. Continuous fetal and uterine monitoring should be prioritized to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. While assessing I&O levels and the IV site are common postoperative care procedures, they are not specific to the unique needs of a pregnant woman. Evaluating for signs and symptoms of infection is important for any postoperative patient but is not the additional assessment required specifically for a pregnant woman in this scenario. Routine vital signs and incision evaluation are standard components of postoperative care but do not address the specific needs related to the fetus and the uterus in this case.
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A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients who are breastfeeding after returning to work. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. "Thawed breast milk can be refrigerated for up to 24 hours."
- B. "Breast milk can be stored in a deep freezer for 12 months."
- C. "Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for up to 4 hours."
- D. "Thawed breast milk that is unused cannot be refrozen."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Breast milk can be stored in a deep freezer for 12 months." This instruction is important for mothers returning to work to ensure a long-term storage option for breast milk. Choice A is incorrect because thawed breast milk should be used within 24 hours if stored in the refrigerator. Choice C is incorrect as breast milk can be kept at room temperature for only up to 4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as thawed breast milk that is unused should not be refrozen due to safety concerns.
A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
- C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
- D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.
A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?
- A. A client who has active genital herpes
- B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
- C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
- D. A client who has placenta previa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.
What determines a child's sex?
- A. Presence of teratogens at the time of conception.
- B. Sex chromosome received from the mother.
- C. Presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation.
- D. Sex chromosome received from the father.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the sex chromosome received from the father. The father contributes either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the child's sex. This occurs at the moment of fertilization when the sperm carrying either an X (resulting in a female) or Y (resulting in a male) chromosome fertilizes the egg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the presence of teratogens at the time of conception or ovulation does not determine the child's sex. While the sex chromosome received from the mother is important, it is the father's contribution that ultimately determines the child's sex.
Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.
- A. rod-shaped
- B. circular
- C. cone-shaped
- D. octagonal
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.