Nokea
What concept is considered when generic drugs are substituted for brand-name drugs?
- A. Half Life.
- B. Critical concentration.
- C. Distribution.
- D. Bioavailability.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bioavailability. Bioavailability refers to the extent and rate at which the active ingredient of a drug is absorbed and becomes available at the site of action in the body. When generic drugs are substituted for brand-name drugs, bioavailability is crucial to ensure that the generic drug delivers the same therapeutic effect as the brand-name drug. A higher bioavailability indicates that the generic drug is absorbed efficiently and can produce the desired clinical effect. Half-life (A) is the time required for the concentration of a drug in the body to decrease by half, not directly related to drug substitution. Critical concentration (B) is the minimum concentration of a drug needed to produce a therapeutic effect, not specifically considered in drug substitution. Distribution (C) refers to the process of drug transport within the body, not directly linked to drug substitution.
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The nurse evaluates an improvement in the patient's heart failure (HF) status based on what assessment finding?
- A. Improved mental status.
- B. Using fewer pillows at night.
- C. Increased skin turgor.
- D. Heart rate regular.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Using fewer pillows at night. This indicates decreased fluid retention, a common symptom of heart failure. Improved mental status (A) may not directly correlate with HF improvement. Increased skin turgor (C) is more related to dehydration. A regular heart rate (D) is a positive sign but not specific to HF improvement.
The nurse is caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease. While writing the care plan for the patient, what would be an appropriate diagnosis?
- A. Constipation related to dopaminergic effects.
- B. Risk for injuries related to CVS effects and PVD.
- C. Risk for injury related to CVS effects and incidence of orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Diarrhea related to dopaminergic effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, "Risk for injury related to CVS effects and incidence of orthostatic hypotension." This is the most appropriate diagnosis for a patient with Parkinson's Disease because they are at increased risk for falls due to cardiovascular (CVS) effects such as orthostatic hypotension, which can lead to dizziness and falls. This diagnosis addresses the specific risk factor associated with Parkinson's Disease and focuses on preventing potential injuries.
Choice A, "Constipation related to dopaminergic effects," is incorrect as constipation is a common symptom in Parkinson's Disease but does not directly relate to the risk of injury.
Choice B, "Risk for injuries related to CVS effects and PVD," is incorrect because it includes peripheral vascular disease (PVD) which is not typically associated with Parkinson's Disease.
Choice D, "Diarrhea related to dopaminergic effects," is also incorrect as diarrhea is not a common symptom or risk factor for patients with Parkinson's Disease.
A student asks the pharmacology instructor to explain the action of anticholinergic agents. What would be the instructor's best response?
- A. They compete with serotonin for muscarinic acetylcholine receptor sites.
- B. They increase norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction.
- C. They block nicotinic receptors.
- D. They act to block the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: They act to block the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. Anticholinergic agents inhibit the action of acetylcholine, the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system. By blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, these agents reduce parasympathetic stimulation, leading to effects such as decreased salivation, decreased GI motility, and pupil dilation.
Choice A is incorrect because anticholinergic agents do not compete with serotonin for receptor sites; they primarily target acetylcholine receptors. Choice B is incorrect as anticholinergic agents do not directly affect norepinephrine levels at the neuromuscular junction. Choice C is incorrect because anticholinergic agents primarily target muscarinic receptors, not nicotinic receptors.
Identify a reason a narcotic agent may be prescribed.
- A. Relief of moderate acute pain.
- B. Relief of minor pain.
- C. Analgesia during sleep.
- D. Analgesia during anesthesia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relief of moderate acute pain. Narcotic agents are potent pain relievers typically prescribed for moderate to severe acute pain due to their strong analgesic properties. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, blocking pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as narcotics are usually reserved for more intense pain. Choices C and D are incorrect because narcotics are not typically used for analgesia during sleep or anesthesia, as they can cause respiratory depression and other complications.
The nursing instructor asks the student nurse to explain the action of sumatriptan. What is the student's best response?
- A. Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels.
- B. Depresses pain response in the central nervous system.
- C. Vasoconstrictive on cranial blood vessels.
- D. Binds to acetylcholine receptors to prevent nerve transmission.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vasoconstrictive on cranial blood vessels. Sumatriptan is a medication used to treat migraines by constricting blood vessels in the brain, which helps to reduce inflammation and pain associated with migraines. This action helps to alleviate migraine symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sumatriptan does not cause vasodilation, depress pain response in the central nervous system, or bind to acetylcholine receptors. Sumatriptan specifically targets cranial blood vessels to relieve migraine symptoms.