Nokea
What is an accurate description of eosinophilic esophagitis?
- A. Adenocarcinoma or squamous cell tumors of the esophagus
- B. Dilated veins in the esophagus caused by portal hypertension
- C. Inflammation of the esophagus from irritants or gastric reflux
- D. Swelling of the esophagus caused by an allergic response to food or environmental triggers
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because eosinophilic esophagitis is characterized by swelling of the esophagus due to an allergic response to food or environmental triggers. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell typically involved in allergic reactions. Adenocarcinoma or squamous cell tumors (choice A) are types of esophageal cancer, not related to eosinophilic esophagitis. Dilated veins in the esophagus from portal hypertension (choice B) are seen in conditions such as cirrhosis, not eosinophilic esophagitis. Inflammation from irritants or gastric reflux (choice C) may cause esophagitis but not specifically eosinophilic esophagitis, which is immune-mediated.
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Amylase could be found in all of these areas except which one?
- A. mouth
- B. stomach
- C. duodenum
- D. pancreas
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (stomach) because amylase is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates, and it is primarily found in the mouth and the small intestine (duodenum and pancreas). In the mouth, salivary amylase begins the digestion of starches. In the small intestine, pancreatic amylase continues this process. The stomach, however, is not a site for amylase secretion but rather secretes pepsin for protein digestion. Therefore, amylase is not found in the stomach. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amylase is indeed present in the mouth, duodenum, and pancreas, respectively.
Salivary secretion:
- A. Starts digestion of carbohydrates.
- B. is under control of secretin hormone.
- C. Starts digestion of proteins.
- D. is highly acidic.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because salivary secretion contains enzymes like amylase that start the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth. This enzyme breaks down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because salivary secretion is not directly controlled by secretin hormone, does not start the digestion of proteins, and is not highly acidic. Salivary secretion primarily aids in the initial breakdown of carbohydrates, preparing them for further digestion in the stomach and intestines.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse notices that the solution bag is almost empty and there is not another bag of TPN to administer. Which of the following IV solutions should the nurse administer until the next bag of TPN solution is available?
- A. 10% dextrose in water (D10W)
- B. 0.45% sodium chloride (0.45% NaCl)
- C. Lactated Ringer's solution
- D. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution (D5LR)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 10% dextrose in water (D10W). When a TPN bag is almost empty, abruptly stopping it can lead to hypoglycemia. Administering D10W provides a temporary source of glucose to prevent this. D10W is a hypertonic solution that delivers a high concentration of dextrose for energy. Option B (0.45% NaCl) is hypotonic and lacks the necessary glucose content. Option C (Lactated Ringer's solution) does not contain glucose, and option D (D5LR) contains lactate, which may not be suitable for all patients. Administering D10W is the most appropriate choice to prevent hypoglycemia until the next bag of TPN is available.
Saliva is needed for:
- A. Digestion of sucrose
- B. Digestion of phospholipids
- C. Ability to speak
- D. Breaking food down into small pieces
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Saliva contains an enzyme called amylase, which helps break down sucrose (a type of sugar) into glucose and fructose for digestion. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Saliva does not play a significant role in the digestion of phospholipids (B), speaking ability (C), or breaking food down into small pieces (D).
You would be most concerned about which client having an order for TPN (total parenteral nutrition) fat emulsion?
- A. A client with gastrointestinal obstruction
- B. A client with severe anorexia nervosa
- C. A client with chronic diarrhea and vomiting
- D. A client with a fractured femur
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. TPN fat emulsion can increase the risk of fat embolism in clients with fractures.
2. Fat embolism is a serious complication in clients with long bone fractures, like a fractured femur.
3. Clients with gastrointestinal issues, anorexia nervosa, chronic diarrhea, or vomiting are not at increased risk for fat embolism.
4. Monitoring for signs of fat embolism is crucial in clients receiving TPN fat emulsion to prevent complications.