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What is an important teaching point for a patient prescribed dabigatran for atrial fibrillation?
- A. Take the medication with food to enhance absorption.
- B. Do not crush or chew the capsules.
- C. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.
- D. Avoid all dairy products.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant medication that comes in capsules, which should not be crushed or chewed to maintain its extended-release formulation.
2. Crushing or chewing the capsules can lead to an increased risk of bleeding due to rapid release of the medication.
3. Therefore, advising the patient not to crush or chew the capsules is crucial to ensure the safety and efficacy of dabigatran therapy.
Summary:
A: Taking with food is not necessary for dabigatran absorption.
C: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with anticoagulant therapy.
D: There is no need to avoid all dairy products while taking dabigatran.
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A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which can reduce peripheral edema in patients with heart failure. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload in the body. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) would not be an expected outcome of furosemide use. Increased heart rate (choice C) is not a direct effect of furosemide and can indicate worsening heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice D) would be an adverse effect of furosemide and would indicate the medication is not working as intended.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic side effects, including weight gain. This is important to monitor as it can lead to various health issues such as diabetes and cardiovascular problems. Hypertension (A), hypoglycemia (C), and bradycardia (D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use, making them less likely side effects to monitor in this case.
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce fluid retention. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine production, leading to the removal of excess fluid and sodium from the body. This helps reduce fluid volume overload in conditions like heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because while reducing fluid retention may indirectly improve cardiac output by reducing preload, furosemide itself does not directly increase cardiac output. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because while furosemide may lower blood pressure as a result of reducing fluid volume, its primary action is to reduce fluid retention, not specifically lower blood pressure.
What instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. Take the medication with milk.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Take the medication before bedtime.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water on an empty stomach in the morning to enhance absorption. Option A is incorrect because taking alendronate with milk decreases its absorption. Option B is incorrect as lying down after taking alendronate can lead to esophageal irritation. Option D is incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime can cause esophageal irritation as well due to the risk of reflux when lying down.
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.