Nokea
What is contraceptive abstinence?
- A. mutual masturbation
- B. individual masturbation
- C. oral stimulation of the genitals
- D. avoiding penis-in-vagina intercourse
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Contraceptive abstinence refers to avoiding penis-in-vagina intercourse to prevent pregnancy. It is a method of birth control where sexual partners choose not to engage in sexual intercourse during fertile periods to avoid the risk of pregnancy. This method relies on refraining from penetrative sex or any ejaculatory contact between the penis and vagina. It is a natural form of birth control and does not involve the use of contraceptives or devices.
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the nurse knows that management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides are for a client with this condition should be aware that which of the following is the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief dysmenorrhea? Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
- A. Acetaminophen.
- B. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
- C. Aspirin
- D. ampicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are considered the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. They work by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for causing uterine contractions and pain. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, naproxen, and mefenamic acid are commonly used to alleviate menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen may also provide pain relief, but it does not have the anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs. Oral contraceptives (OCPs) can help regulate menstrual cycles and reduce pain in some individuals, but they are not the first line of treatment for immediate pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. Aspirin, while an NSAID, is not typically recommended for menstrual pain relief due to its potential side effects on blood clotting and gastrointestinal irritation.
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What is the priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen to the mother.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare for potential neonatal resuscitation.
- D. Increase IV fluid rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid poses a risk of aspiration; preparation for neonatal resuscitation is critical.
Which lifestyle factor is associated with an increased risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. regular physical activity
- B. moderate alcohol consumption
- C. maintaining a healthy weight after menopause
- D. excessive alcohol consumption
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a prescription to receive misoprostol intravaginally. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?
- A. "You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose."
- B. "You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose."
- C. " You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy."
- D. " You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make to the client receiving misoprostol intravaginally is, "You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose." This instruction is important because maintaining a side-lying position can help prevent leakage and promote proper absorption of the medication. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication and reduces the risk of its expulsion before absorption, ultimately leading to a better response to the treatment. The other options are not relevant to the administration of misoprostol intravaginally and do not align with best practice for this specific therapy.
What tion in the FHR that is abrupt and appears to be does the nurse inform this group that they are at in the shape of a W. What is the most likely cause highest risk for? of this?
- A. Sexually transmitted diseases
- B. Compression of the fetal head
- C. Uterine cancer
- D. Compression of the umbilical cord
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An abnormality in the FHR that is abrupt and appears to be in the shape of a "W" is often indicative of variable decelerations. Variable decelerations typically occur due to compression of the umbilical cord, leading to a temporary decrease in oxygen supply to the fetus. It is important for the nurse to inform this group that they are at the highest risk for compression of the umbilical cord as this can result in fetal distress and potentially lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed.