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A pregnant client reports frequent urination and lower abdominal pressure at 36 weeks. What should the nurse explain?
- A. This is a sign of preterm labor.
- B. This indicates urinary tract infection.
- C. This is common due to fetal descent.
- D. This is caused by Braxton Hicks contractions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: As the fetus descends into the pelvis (lightening), increased pressure on the bladder causes frequent urination.
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A woman has been having contractions since 4am this morning. At 8am her cervix dilated 5cm. Contractions are frequent, mild to moderate in intensity. CPD has been ruled out. After giving her sedation so she can rest, what would anticipate preparing her for?
- A. oxytocin induction
- B. Amnioinfusion
- C. c/s
- D. increased IV infusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes a woman in active labor with frequent, mild to moderate contractions and significant cervical dilation. If cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) has been ruled out and the progress of labor is slow despite sufficient dilation and descent of the fetus, it may indicate cephalopelvic disproportion, failure to progress, or other complications that could necessitate a cesarean section (c/s). In this case, providing sedation to allow for rest suggests that the medical team is considering the possibility of further intervention, such as a c/s, if the labor does not progress effectively despite sufficient dilation. Therefore, preparing the woman for a c/s would be the anticipated next step in her care.
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports regular uterine contractions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage ambulation to relieve discomfort.
- B. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
- C. Assess fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
- D. Administer an analgesic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and contraction pattern is crucial to evaluate for preterm labor.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a prescription to receive misoprostol intravaginally. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?
- A. "You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose."
- B. "You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose."
- C. " You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy."
- D. " You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make to the client receiving misoprostol intravaginally is, "You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose." This instruction is important because maintaining a side-lying position can help prevent leakage and promote proper absorption of the medication. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication and reduces the risk of its expulsion before absorption, ultimately leading to a better response to the treatment. The other options are not relevant to the administration of misoprostol intravaginally and do not align with best practice for this specific therapy.
What two steps of the CJMM are included in the assessment step of the nursing process?
- A. noticing cues and evaluating outcomes
- B. analyzing cues and generating solutions
- C. noticing and analyzing cues
- D. analyzing cues and taking action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the assessment step of the nursing process, two steps of the CJMM (Clinical Judgment Model) that are included are noticing cues and evaluating outcomes. Noticing cues involves observing and recognizing relevant information or data related to the patient's health status, while evaluating outcomes involves assessing the effectiveness of the nursing interventions and patient responses to the care provided. By noticing cues, nurses gather information that guides their decision-making process, and by evaluating outcomes, they determine the impact of their actions on the patient's health and adjust the plan of care as needed. These two steps are essential in the assessment phase as they contribute to developing a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and progress towards achieving desired health outcomes.
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What is the priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen to the mother.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare for potential neonatal resuscitation.
- D. Increase IV fluid rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid poses a risk of aspiration; preparation for neonatal resuscitation is critical.