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What is the significance of luteal phase deficiency in infertility?
- A. It results from inadequate estrogen levels during ovulation.
- B. It is caused by insufficient progesterone to maintain the uterine lining.
- C. It occurs only in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
- D. It leads to the release of immature eggs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase deficiency is caused by insufficient progesterone to maintain the uterine lining, which is crucial for implantation of a fertilized egg. This deficiency can lead to difficulty in sustaining a pregnancy.
A is incorrect because estrogen levels are more related to follicular phase than luteal phase.
C is incorrect because luteal phase deficiency can occur in women without PCOS.
D is incorrect because immature eggs are more related to ovulation issues rather than luteal phase deficiency.
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What is the primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation?
- A. To assess sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- B. To determine the presence of infections in the reproductive tract.
- C. To measure hormone levels affecting sperm production.
- D. To identify potential genetic anomalies in sperm.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation is to assess sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial as these factors directly impact male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm present, motility relates to their ability to move effectively towards the egg, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm, which can affect their ability to fertilize an egg. Evaluating these parameters helps identify potential issues causing infertility. Other choices are incorrect as semen analysis primarily focuses on assessing sperm quality, not infections, hormone levels, or genetic anomalies in sperm.
What is the role of pelvic ultrasound in infertility evaluation?
- A. To evaluate ovarian reserve directly.
- B. To visualize uterine and ovarian structures.
- C. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- D. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as pelvic ultrasound allows visualization of uterine and ovarian structures. This is essential in assessing conditions like fibroids, polyps, ovarian cysts, and structural abnormalities that may affect fertility. Ovarian reserve evaluation (A) involves separate tests like AMH levels. Hormone levels (C) are typically measured through blood tests. Genetic abnormalities in embryos (D) are usually identified through preimplantation genetic testing, not pelvic ultrasound.
During ovulation induction, a patient asks why hormone levels are monitored so frequently. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. To predict embryo quality before fertilization.
- B. To ensure hormone levels stay within safe and effective ranges for egg maturation.
- C. To confirm the patient is pregnant before the cycle ends.
- D. To determine if the uterine lining is ready for implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring hormone levels during ovulation induction is essential to ensure that the hormones stay within safe and effective ranges for successful egg maturation. By closely monitoring hormone levels, healthcare providers can adjust medication dosages as needed to optimize the chances of successful ovulation. This helps to minimize the risk of overstimulation or understimulation of the ovaries, which can impact the quality of the eggs produced.
A: Predicting embryo quality before fertilization is not the primary purpose of monitoring hormone levels during ovulation induction.
C: Confirming pregnancy before the cycle ends is not the purpose of hormone level monitoring during ovulation induction.
D: Determining if the uterine lining is ready for implantation is important, but this is typically assessed through other methods such as ultrasound rather than hormone level monitoring.
A couple inquires about the inheritance of Huntington's disease (HD) because the prospective father's mother is dying of the illness. There is no history of the disease in his partner's family. The man has never been tested for HD. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Because HD is an autosomal dominant disease
- B. each and every one of your children will have a 1 in 4 chance of having the disease.
- C. Because only one of you has a family history of HD
- D. the probability of any of your children having the disease is less than 10%.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Without testing, the exact risk cannot be determined, but each child has a 50% chance if the father carries the gene.
A woman asks a nurse about presymptomatic genetic testing for Huntington's disease. The nurse should base her response on which of the following?
- A. There is no genetic marker for Huntington's disease.
- B. Presymptomatic testing cannot predict whether or not the gene will be expressed.
- C. If the woman is positive for the gene for Huntington's
- D. she will develop the disease later in life.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive result for the Huntington's gene guarantees eventual development of the disease.