Nokea
What normally inhibits testosterone production?
- A. increasing FSH
- B. increasing ICSH
- C. decreasing ICSH
- D. decreasing FSH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing ICSH (Luteinizing Hormone) inhibits testosterone production by exerting negative feedback on the testes. ICSH stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. When testosterone levels rise, it signals the pituitary gland to decrease ICSH secretion, thus inhibiting further testosterone production.
A: Increasing FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) does not inhibit testosterone production.
C: Decreasing ICSH would lead to reduced stimulation of Leydig cells and lower testosterone production.
D: Decreasing FSH would not directly inhibit testosterone production as FSH primarily stimulates sperm production in the testes.
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During oogenesis, an oogonium ovarian and uterine (menstrual) directly gives rise to ________. cycles?
- A. an ovum
- B. 7 days
- C. a primary oocyte
- D. 14 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 14 days. During oogenesis, the process of ovulation occurs approximately 14 days prior to the start of the next menstrual cycle. This is crucial for timing fertilization and pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: an ovum is the mature egg released during ovulation, not directly related to the menstrual cycle.
B: 7 days is not a relevant timeframe in the context of oogenesis and menstrual cycles.
C: a primary oocyte is the initial stage of egg development and needs further maturation before ovulation, not directly linked to the menstrual cycle timing.
The depression or socket in the pelvic bone into which the head of the femur articulates is called
- A. Glenoid fossa
- B. Mandibular fossa
- C. Jugular fossa
- D. Acetabulum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetabulum. The acetabulum is the depression in the pelvic bone where the head of the femur articulates. This articulation forms the hip joint. The glenoid fossa (A) is found in the scapula and articulates with the head of the humerus, not the femur. The mandibular fossa (B) is located in the temporal bone and articulates with the mandible, not the femur. The jugular fossa (C) is a groove in the temporal bone for the internal jugular vein, not related to the femur articulation. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it accurately describes the anatomical structure where the femur articulates with the pelvic bone.
You observe a student nurse accomplishing all of these activities while caring for a client who has an intracavitary radioactive implant in place to treat cervical cancer. Which action requires that you intervene immediately?
- A. The student stands next to the client for 5 minutes while assisting with her bath.
- B. The student asks the client how she feels about losing her child-bearing ability.
- C. The student assists the client to the bedside commode for a bowel movement.
- D. The student offers to get the client whatever she would like to eat or drink.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Standing next to the client increases the student's exposure to radiation, requiring immediate correction.
Soft spots that refers to unossified areas in an infants skull is termed as
- A. Sulcus
- B. Sinus
- C. Fontanelle
- D. Suture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fontanelle. Fontanelles are soft spots in an infant's skull where the bones have not yet fully fused. They allow for the baby's brain to grow and accommodate the rapid brain development during the early months of life. Sulcus refers to a groove or furrow, sinus is a cavity within a bone, and suture is the line where two bones meet. These terms do not specifically refer to the unossified areas in an infant's skull, making them incorrect choices.
Frank is a 24 year old man who presents with multiple vesicles and burning erosions on the shaft of his penis and some tender inguinal adenopathy. Which of the following is most likely?
- A. Primary syphilis
- B. Herpes simplex
- C. Chancroid
- D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpes simplex. This is because the presentation of multiple vesicles, burning erosions on the penis shaft, and inguinal adenopathy is classic for genital herpes. Primary syphilis (A) presents with a painless chancre, chancroid (C) with painful ulcers, and gonorrhea (D) with urethral discharge or dysuria. Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by HSV-1 or HSV-2 and typically presents with vesicles, erosions, and adenopathy in the affected area.