Nokea
What type of pain does the nurse expect a patient with an ulcer of the posterior portion of the duodenum to experience?
- A. Pain that occurs after not eating all day
- B. Back pain that occurs 2 to 4 hours following meals
- C. Midepigastric pain that is unrelieved with antacids
- D. High epigastric burning that is relieved with food intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Back pain that occurs 2 to 4 hours following meals. This type of pain is characteristic of duodenal ulcers due to increased acid secretion post-meals. Pain occurs when acidic stomach contents enter the duodenum, stimulating pain receptors. Back pain is common as the ulcer is located in the posterior portion of the duodenum. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical pain pattern of a duodenal ulcer. Choice A is more indicative of gastritis, Choice C is suggestive of peptic ulcer disease, and Choice D is more characteristic of gastric ulcers.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is educating a patient who is starting treatment with warfarin. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?
- A. "You can continue taking your aspirin as prescribed."
- B. "Be sure to have regular blood tests to monitor your INR."
- C. "You should increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
- D. "If you miss a dose, double the dose the next day."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Be sure to have regular blood tests to monitor your INR." Warfarin is a medication that requires close monitoring of the International Normalized Ratio (INR) to ensure it is within the therapeutic range. Regular blood tests are crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or blood clots.
Choice A is incorrect because aspirin increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Choice C is incorrect because increasing vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. Choice D is incorrect because doubling the dose can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Regular monitoring of INR levels is essential for safe and effective warfarin therapy.
In planning a treatment and prevention program of chronic fecal incontinence for an elderly client, which intervention should you try first?
- A. Administer a glycerin suppository 15 minutes before evacuation time.
- B. Insert a rectal tube at specified intervals each day.
- C. Assist the client to the bedpan or toilet 30 minutes after meals.
- D. Use incontinence briefs or adult-sized diapers.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assist the client to the bedpan or toilet 30 minutes after meals. This intervention is appropriate as it aligns with the natural physiological process of bowel movements after meals, increasing the likelihood of successful evacuation. This timing can help establish a routine and promote regular bowel movements, potentially reducing episodes of fecal incontinence.
Choice A is incorrect because administering a glycerin suppository may not address the underlying cause of fecal incontinence and may not promote regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as inserting a rectal tube is an invasive intervention that should only be considered after less invasive methods have been exhausted. Choice D is incorrect as using incontinence briefs or adult-sized diapers only manages the symptoms without addressing the root cause or promoting bowel regularity.
An individual has the following symptoms: jaundice, pale in color, liver with a buildup of connective tissue. This individual most likely has
- A. gastritis.
- B. pancreatitis.
- C. gall stones.
- D. cirrhosis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: cirrhosis. Jaundice, pale skin, and liver with connective tissue buildup are classic symptoms of cirrhosis - a condition characterized by scarring of the liver due to long-term damage. Jaundice occurs when the liver is unable to properly process bilirubin, leading to yellowing of the skin and eyes. The pale color can be due to anemia often seen in cirrhosis. The buildup of connective tissue is indicative of fibrosis and scarring in the liver. Gastritis (A) is inflammation of the stomach lining, pancreatitis (B) is inflammation of the pancreas, and gallstones (C) are solid particles that form in the gallbladder. These conditions do not typically present with the combination of symptoms described.
The following statements are true about bile except:
- A. 25% is produced by bile duct cells
- B. The bile stored in the gall bladder contains secondary bile acids
- C. Its secretion is increased by secretin
- D. Bile pigments are needed for micelle formation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bile pigments are not needed for micelle formation. Micelles are formed by bile salts, which aid in the emulsification of fats. Choice A is incorrect as bile is primarily produced by the liver, not bile duct cells. Choice B is incorrect as primary bile acids are stored in the gall bladder, not secondary bile acids. Choice C is incorrect as secretin stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes, not bile secretion.
Which of the following hormones stimulates the release of gastric acid?
- A. gastrin
- B. secretin
- C. insulin
- D. cholecystokinin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: gastrin. Gastrin is a hormone produced by G cells in the stomach lining that stimulates the release of gastric acid. It acts directly on parietal cells to increase acid secretion. Secretin (B) stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion, not gastric acid. Insulin (C) regulates blood sugar levels, not gastric acid secretion. Cholecystokinin (D) stimulates the release of bile from the gallbladder and pancreatic enzymes, not gastric acid.