Nokea
When a client describes their family as having multiple wives, all of whom are sisters, married to one man, the nurse documents the family structure as?
- A. polyandry
- B. soronal
- C. nonsororal
- D. sororate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The practice of polygamy refers to having multiple wives or husbands. When there are multiple wives who are sisters, the polygamy is designated as soronal. When the wives are not sisters it is nonsororal. Polyandry refers to multiple husbands and is rare. Some cultures practice a polygamy designated as sororate. Sororate polygamy specifies that a husband must marry his wife's sister if she dies. These marriages are successive rather than concurrent.
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An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
- A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
- B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
- C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
- D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.
A new mother is being discharged from the maternity unit and provided with information about signs and symptoms to report to her health care provider. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further information?
- A. I will call my nurse-midwife if I experience any redness, swelling, or tenderness in my legs.''
- B. My temperature needs to remain within a normal range.''
- C. Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected.''
- D. Feelings of pelvic fullness or pelvic pressure are a sign of a problem.''
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected.' This statement by the mother indicates a need for further information because these symptoms are not normal and could indicate a urinary tract infection or another issue that needs medical attention. The other choices correctly reflect signs and symptoms that should be reported to the health care provider. Redness, swelling, or tenderness in the legs can indicate a blood clot, and feelings of pelvic fullness or pressure can be signs of a problem. Monitoring temperature is also important to ensure there is no infection or other complications postpartum.
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
- A. Near vision
- B. Color vision
- C. Distant vision
- D. Peripheral vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
Which of the following vaccines are not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
- A. DTaP
- B. MMR
- C. Hib
- D. Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is not part of the standard childhood immunization schedule, unlike DTaP, MMR, and Hib, which are routinely administered.
Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
- A. DTaP
- B. MMR
- C. Hib
- D. hepatitis A
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.