Nokea
When caring for the patient with interstitial cystitis, what can the nurse teach the patient to do?
- A. Avoid foods that make the urine more alkaline.
- B. Use high-potency vitamin therapy to decrease the autoimmune effects of the disorder.
- C. Always keep a voiding diary to document pain, voiding frequency, and patterns of nocturia.
- D. Use the dietary supplement calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) to decrease bladder irritation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) is a dietary supplement that helps decrease bladder irritation in patients with interstitial cystitis. It works by reducing the acidity of foods and beverages that can irritate the bladder. This can help alleviate symptoms such as bladder pain and urgency.
Avoiding foods that make the urine more alkaline (choice A) is not recommended for patients with interstitial cystitis as it can worsen symptoms. Using high-potency vitamin therapy (choice B) to decrease autoimmune effects is not a standard treatment for interstitial cystitis. Keeping a voiding diary (choice C) is helpful for tracking symptoms but does not directly address bladder irritation like calcium glycerophosphate does.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which is incorrect regarding the investigation of UTI?
- A. The sensitivity of dipstick for nitrites is 96%.
- B. A positive dipstick for leucocyte esterase is 96% specific for >10 wbc/mm .
- C. A bacterial culture with > 10 has 95% probability of representing infection.
- D. Use of blood cultures in does not change management when urine culture is taken.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive dipstick for leucocyte esterase is not 96% specific for >10 wbc/mm³. Leucocyte esterase can indicate the presence of white blood cells, but it does not quantitatively correlate with a specific wbc count. Therefore, it cannot be used to accurately determine the exact wbc count in the urine sample.
A: The sensitivity of dipstick for nitrites being 96% means it is good at detecting nitrites, which are a sign of bacterial infection in the urine.
C: A bacterial culture with >10^5 colony-forming units has a high probability of representing infection, typically around 95%.
D: Blood cultures are not routinely used for diagnosing UTIs; urine culture is the primary method. Blood cultures are more often used for systemic infections.
A patient with psychologic disorder is being treated with a drug. Few months he is worried that he is constantly thirsty and urinates copiously frequently throughout the day and night. Which of the following drugs most likely cause inappropriate secretion of ADH?
- A. Diazepam
- B. Lithium
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Phenytoin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lithium. Lithium is known to cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, leading to inappropriate secretion of ADH. This results in excessive thirst and copious urination. Diazepam (A) does not affect ADH secretion. Haloperidol (C) and Phenytoin (D) are not associated with ADH dysregulation.
An older man is concerned about his sexual performance. The nurse knows that in the absence of disease, a withdrawal from sexual activity later in life may be attributable to:
- A. Side effects of medications.
- B. Decreased libido with aging.
- C. Decreased sperm production.
- D. Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Side effects of medications. As people age, they are more likely to be on multiple medications, some of which can have side effects like erectile dysfunction or decreased libido, leading to a withdrawal from sexual activity. This is a common issue for older adults.
Choice B (Decreased libido with aging) is incorrect because while libido may decrease with age, it is not usually the sole reason for a complete withdrawal from sexual activity.
Choice C (Decreased sperm production) is incorrect as it is not directly related to a withdrawal from sexual activity in older men.
Choice D (Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse) is incorrect as pleasure can still be experienced regardless of age, and it is unlikely to be the primary reason for withdrawal.
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she wets herself a little. She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
- A. Dysuria.
- B. Stress incontinence.
- C. Hematuria.
- D. Urge incontinence.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stress incontinence. This is the most likely issue because the patient leaks urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing or coughing. Stress incontinence is due to weakened pelvic floor muscles and sphincter, leading to leakage with exertion. Dysuria (choice A) is painful urination, not related to leakage. Hematuria (choice C) is blood in urine, not related to leakage. Urge incontinence (choice D) involves a sudden, strong urge to urinate and is not triggered by sneezing or coughing.
In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day?
- A. Long nocturnal hemodialysis
- B. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD)
- C. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)
- D. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD). In APD, the patient connects to a machine at night for dialysis while sleeping, and during the day, the dialysis fluid remains in the abdomen. This allows for continuous treatment without the need for daytime exchanges.
A: Long nocturnal hemodialysis involves nighttime hemodialysis sessions but does not involve leaving fluid in the abdomen during the day.
C: Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is a continuous renal replacement therapy used in critically ill patients, not for ambulatory dialysis.
D: Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) requires manual exchanges throughout the day, unlike APD where the fluid remains in the abdomen during the day.