Nokea
The nurse caring for a patient with suspected renal has been referred by her primary physician for further dysfunction calculates that the patients weight has evaluation. The nurse should anticipate the use of what increased by 5 pounds in the past 24 hours. The nurse initial diagnostic test?
- A. Ultrasound
- B. X-ray
- C. 1,300 mL of fluid in 24 hours
- D. Computed tomography (CT)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ultrasound. This is the appropriate initial diagnostic test for suspected renal dysfunction due to its non-invasive nature and ability to visualize the kidneys and urinary system. Ultrasound can detect abnormalities such as kidney stones or obstruction. X-ray (B) does not provide detailed imaging of the kidneys. Option C refers to fluid intake, which is not a diagnostic test. Computed tomography (CT) scan (D) involves radiation exposure and is usually reserved for more advanced imaging after initial ultrasound. Ultrasound is the most suitable choice for initial evaluation of renal dysfunction.
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The drug of choice for monilial diarrhea is: *
- A. Amphothericin B
- B. Nystatin
- C. Ketoconazole
- D. Itraconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nystatin. Nystatin is the drug of choice for monilial diarrhea because it is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida species causing the infection in the gastrointestinal tract. It is not absorbed systemically, making it suitable for gastrointestinal infections. Amphothericin B (A) is used for systemic fungal infections. Ketoconazole (C) and Itraconazole (D) are not typically used for gastrointestinal Candida infections.
A nurse is examining a 40-year-old woman for signs of ovarian cancer. She has a family history of ovarian cancer. Which statement does the nurse know to be true regarding ovarian cancer?
- A. Ovarian cancer often does not show symptoms until late stages.
- B. The Pap smear test detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
- C. Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have an annual pelvic ultrasound.
- D. Women over the age of 50 should be screened for ovarian cancer annually.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ovarian cancer often does not show symptoms until late stages. This is true because ovarian cancer is often asymptomatic in the early stages, making it difficult to detect. By the time symptoms appear, the cancer is usually at an advanced stage.
Choice B is incorrect because the Pap smear test is used to detect cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while some high-risk women may benefit from periodic ultrasound screenings, it is not recommended for all women at high risk. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific annual screening recommendation for ovarian cancer in women over the age of 50.
In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day?
- A. Long nocturnal hemodialysis
- B. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD)
- C. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)
- D. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD). In APD, the patient connects to a machine at night for dialysis while sleeping, and during the day, the dialysis fluid remains in the abdomen. This allows for continuous treatment without the need for daytime exchanges.
A: Long nocturnal hemodialysis involves nighttime hemodialysis sessions but does not involve leaving fluid in the abdomen during the day.
C: Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is a continuous renal replacement therapy used in critically ill patients, not for ambulatory dialysis.
D: Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) requires manual exchanges throughout the day, unlike APD where the fluid remains in the abdomen during the day.
A nurses colleague has applied an incontinence pad Select all that apply.
- A. Dietary history
- B. What principle
- C. Family history of renal stones
- D. Medication history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dietary history. Understanding the patient's dietary habits can help identify potential triggers for incontinence, such as caffeine or alcohol intake. It also provides insight into fluid intake, which can impact incontinence.
Incorrect choices:
B: What principle - This is vague and does not provide relevant information for managing incontinence.
C: Family history of renal stones - While family history can be important for certain conditions, it is not directly related to managing incontinence.
D: Medication history - While medications can sometimes contribute to incontinence, dietary factors are typically more significant in this context.
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
- B. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- C. Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease – the most common cause of infertility.
- D. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it aligns with standard medical guidelines. Couples are typically considered infertile after 1 year of trying to conceive without success. This timeframe allows for natural variations in fertility and is when medical intervention is usually recommended.
A: Ascertain antibiotic use is not the first step as it may not be directly related to infertility.
C: Referring to pelvic inflammatory disease assumes a diagnosis without proper evaluation.
D: Incorrect timeline of 3 months and immediate referral to a fertility expert is premature without giving time for natural conception.