Nokea
The drug of choice for monilial diarrhea is:
- A. Amphothericin B
- B. Nystatin
- C. Ketoconazole
- D. Itraconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Nystatin is the correct choice for monilial diarrhea:
1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida species causing monilial infections.
2. It works by binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, disrupting membrane integrity and causing cell death.
3. Nystatin is not absorbed systemically, making it suitable for gastrointestinal infections.
4. Amphothericin B is reserved for severe systemic fungal infections due to its significant toxicity. Ketoconazole and Itraconazole are not typically used for gastrointestinal Candida infections, as they are more commonly used for systemic fungal infections.
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Which of the following drugs for treatment of leprosy can cause hemolysis * especially in patients with G6PD deficiency?
- A. Dapsone
- B. Rifampicin
- C. Clofazimine
- D. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Dapsone is a known cause of hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency due to oxidative stress.
2. Dapsone triggers the release of reactive oxygen species, leading to hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals.
3. Rifampicin and clofazimine do not have a direct association with hemolysis in G6PD deficiency.
4. Option D is incorrect as dapsone is a well-established drug associated with hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals.
Which of the following cephalosporins has in vitro activity against anaerobic gram negative bacteria such as Bacteroides fragilis?
- A. Cefdinir
- B. Cefuroxime
- C. Cefazolin
- D. Cefepime
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cefuroxime. Cefuroxime is a second-generation cephalosporin that has demonstrated in vitro activity against anaerobic gram-negative bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis. This is due to its broader spectrum of activity compared to other choices.
A: Cefdinir is a third-generation cephalosporin with limited activity against anaerobic gram-negative bacteria.
C: Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin primarily effective against aerobic gram-positive bacteria.
D: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin with limited activity against anaerobic gram-negative bacteria.
What piece of the patient's medical history supports the diagnosis of a urinary tract infection?
- A. The patient's wife had a urinary tract infection 1 month ago.
- B. The patient has been followed for prostate disease for 2 years.
- C. The patient had intermittent catheterization 6 months ago.
- D. The patient had a kidney stone removed 1 year ago.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a history of intermittent catheterization increases the risk of urinary tract infections due to potential introduction of bacteria into the urinary system. This directly supports the diagnosis of a urinary tract infection.
A: The wife's history is irrelevant unless the patient had direct contact or shared personal items with her.
B: Prostate disease does not directly correlate with a urinary tract infection.
D: Kidney stones are not directly related to urinary tract infections unless there was an associated infection during the stone removal.
A patient has undergone the creation of an Indiana been asked about actions to reduce the risk of bladder pouch for the treatment of bladder cancer. The nurse
- A. addresses a major risk factor for bladder cancer? How can the nurse best address the effects of this
- B. Smoking cessation urinary diversion on the patients body image?
- C. Reduction of alcohol intake
- D. Emphasize that the diversion is an integral part of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because addressing a major risk factor for bladder cancer, such as smoking, is crucial in preventing recurrence. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for bladder cancer, so educating the patient on smoking cessation is essential. This step can significantly reduce the risk of developing bladder cancer again.
Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on body image concerns, which are important but not directly related to reducing the risk of bladder cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while reducing alcohol intake is beneficial for overall health, it is not a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address a specific risk factor for bladder cancer like smoking does.
The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development * of carrier state?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Ciprooxacin
- C. Cotrimoxazole
- D. Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chloramphenicol. It is effective in curing typhoid fever but does not prevent carrier state due to its inability to eradicate the bacteria from the gallbladder. Ceftriaxone, Ciprofloxacin, and Cotrimoxazole can also cure typhoid fever but have been shown to reduce the carrier state development. Chloramphenicol lacks this preventive property, making it the correct answer.