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While caring for a 77-year-old woman who has a urinary catheter, the nurse monitors the patient for the development of a UTI. What clinical manifestations is the patient most likely to experience?
- A. Cloudy urine and fever
- B. Urethral burning and bloody urine
- C. Vague abdominal discomfort and disorientation
- D. Suprapubic pain and slight decline in body temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cloudy urine and fever. UTI in a patient with a urinary catheter may present with cloudy urine due to pus or bacteria, and fever due to infection. Urethral burning and bloody urine (B) are more indicative of urethritis or bladder trauma. Vague abdominal discomfort and disorientation (C) are not specific to UTI. Suprapubic pain and slight decline in body temperature (D) are less likely with UTI.
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What nursing action should the nurse perform when fatigue is undergoing a comprehensive assessment caring for a patient undergoing diagnostic testing of the which includes test of renal function relating to renal-urologic system?
- A. Withhold medications until 12 hours post-testing.
- B. Ensure that the patient knows the importance of of what blood value? temporary fluid restriction after testing.
- C. Hematocrit
- D. Inform the patient of his or her medical diagnosis after
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Option B is correct because it addresses the importance of temporary fluid restriction after renal function testing, which is crucial in maintaining accurate test results. Ensuring patient understanding and compliance with fluid restriction helps prevent dilution of blood samples, leading to more accurate diagnostic outcomes.
Summary:
A: Withholding medications post-testing is not necessary for fatigue assessment related to renal function testing.
C: Hematocrit is not directly related to the temporary fluid restriction after renal function testing.
D: Informing the patient of their medical diagnosis is not relevant when assessing fatigue during diagnostic testing of renal function.
The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development * of carrier state?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Ciprooxacin
- C. Cotrimoxazole
- D. Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chloramphenicol. It is effective in curing typhoid fever but does not prevent carrier state due to its inability to eradicate the bacteria from the gallbladder. Ceftriaxone, Ciprofloxacin, and Cotrimoxazole can also cure typhoid fever but have been shown to reduce the carrier state development. Chloramphenicol lacks this preventive property, making it the correct answer.
The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state:
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Cotrimoxazole
- D. Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Chloramphenicol is effective in curing typhoid fever by targeting the bacteria causing the infection.
2. However, chloramphenicol does not effectively eradicate the bacteria from the carrier state.
3. Ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole are also effective in treating typhoid fever but do not specifically target the carrier state.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Chloramphenicol, as it cures typhoid fever but does not prevent the carrier state.
Due to its potential for severe hepatoxicity, Nevirapine should NOT be * initiated in:
- A. Women with CD4 cell counts >150 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >400 cells/mm3
- B. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >400 cells/mm3
- C. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >500 cells/mm3
- D. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >450 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Nevirapine is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatoxicity, especially within the first few weeks of treatment initiation. The recommended CD4 cell count thresholds for starting Nevirapine are lower in women compared to men to minimize this risk. In this case, women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 and men with CD4 cell counts >450 cells/mm3 should not initiate Nevirapine due to the higher likelihood of developing hepatoxicity.
A is incorrect because the CD4 cell count thresholds are too high for both women and men. B is incorrect as it sets the threshold for women too high. C is incorrect because the threshold for men is too high. Thus, D is the most appropriate choice based on the recommended guidelines to minimize the risk of severe hepatoxicity.
Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that:
- A. Requires pyridoxine (Vit B6) supplementation
- B. Penetrates the BBB and enters the brain useful in TB meningitis
- C. Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
- D. May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Isoniazid can lead to pyridoxine deficiency.
2. Pyridoxine supplementation helps prevent neurotoxicity.
3. Thus, isoniazid therapy requires pyridoxine supplementation.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Isoniazid does not effectively penetrate the BBB.
C: Ocular complications of isoniazid are generally irreversible.
D: Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are not common side effects of isoniazid.