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The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 7.19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate. In this case, the patient has metabolic acidosis with a low pH and low bicarbonate levels. Administering sodium bicarbonate can help correct the acidosis by increasing the bicarbonate levels and improving the pH. This treatment is essential to address the underlying metabolic imbalance.
Choice A is incorrect because administering morphine would not address the root cause of the acidosis and could potentially worsen the respiratory status. Choice B is incorrect as intubation and mechanical ventilation are not indicated solely based on the acid-base imbalance. Choice D is also incorrect as canceling the dialysis session would not address the metabolic acidosis and could potentially worsen the patient's condition.
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The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who is a non-na tive English speaker. What is the best way to communicate with the patient and family to provide updates and explain procedures?
- A. Conduct a Google search on the computer to identify resources for the patient and family in their native language. Print these for their use .
- B. Contact the hospital’s interpreter service for someone to translate.
- C. Get in touch with one of the residents that you know is fluent in the native language and ask him if he can come up to the unit.
- D. Use a young family member who is fluent in both English and the native language to translate for you.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact the hospital’s interpreter service for someone to translate. This is the best option as it ensures accurate communication between the nurse, patient, and family. Hospital interpreters are trained professionals who can accurately convey medical information, ensuring understanding and informed decision-making. Using Google search (A) may result in inaccurate information and is not reliable for medical communication. Asking a resident (C) who is fluent may not guarantee accuracy in medical terminology. Using a young family member (D) as a translator can lead to miscommunication due to potential language barriers or lack of medical knowledge. Overall, option B is the most appropriate and ethical choice for effective communication in a healthcare setting.
A patient requires neuromuscular blockade (NMB) as part of treatment of refractive increased intracranial pressure. The nursing care for this patient includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Administration of sedatives concurrently with neuromuscular blockade.
- B. Dangling the patient’s feet over the edge of the bed an d assisting the patient to sit up in a chair at least twice each day.
- C. Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initi ated.
- D. providing interventions for eye care, oral care, and skin care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated. When a patient requires neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure, they are likely immobile, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Initiating DVT prophylaxis, such as compression stockings or anticoagulant therapy, helps prevent blood clot formation.
Choice A is incorrect because sedatives can mask signs of neurologic deterioration in this patient population. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes activities that may increase intracranial pressure and could be harmful. Choice D, while important for overall patient care, is not directly related to the specific nursing interventions required for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure.
The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
- A. sepsis.
- B. fluid overload.
- C. medications.
- D. hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.
What is the primary mode of action of a neuromuscular bl ocking agent?
- A. Analgesia
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Paralysis
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This paralysis helps facilitate intubation, surgical procedures, and mechanical ventilation.
A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief; they primarily induce muscle paralysis without affecting pain sensation.
B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures; their mechanism of action is not related to controlling convulsions.
D: Sedation - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not induce sedation; they specifically target the neuromuscular junction to cause muscle paralysis.
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
- A. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days
- B. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg
- C. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks
- D. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function.
Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.