Nokea
Which is a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms beginning in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and followed by a symptom-free period?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Premenstrual syndrome
- D. Depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs in the luteal phase due to hormonal changes.
2. PMS includes physical and psychological symptoms.
3. It is followed by a symptom-free period (during menstruation).
4. Endometriosis is a separate condition involving tissue growth outside the uterus.
5. Abnormal uterine bleeding refers to irregular bleeding patterns.
6. Depression is a mental health condition not specific to the menstrual cycle.
Summary:
PMS is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing, symptoms, and pattern described in the question. Endometriosis, abnormal uterine bleeding, and depression do not fully match the criteria provided.
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Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility?
- A. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor.
- B. Infant who is Rh negative and a mother who is Rh negative.
- C. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor.
- D. Infant who is Rh positive and a mother who is Rh positive.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive.
2. If the father is homozygous for Rh factor (AA), all offspring will be Rh-positive.
3. The Rh-positive offspring from an Rh-negative mother can lead to Rh incompatibility.
4. Therefore, the infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor is most likely to express Rh incompatibility.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because both mother and infant are Rh-negative.
- Choice C is incorrect because the father being heterozygous for the Rh factor would not result in all offspring being Rh-positive.
- Choice D is incorrect as both mother and infant are Rh-positive, so there is no risk of Rh incompatibility.
A woman has been diagnosed with galactorrhea. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply.
- A. Milky white discharge from one or both nipples
- B. Absence of menstrual periods
- C. Temperature intolerance
- D. Less interest in sex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Less interest in sex. Galactorrhea is the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast unassociated with childbirth or nursing. It is commonly caused by elevated levels of prolactin, which can suppress the production of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone, leading to symptoms like decreased libido and less interest in sex. The other choices, A, B, and C, are incorrect because milky white discharge from nipples (A) is a symptom of galactorrhea, absence of menstrual periods (B) is more indicative of conditions like amenorrhea, and temperature intolerance (C) is not typically associated with galactorrhea.
The client receives zidovudine (Retrovir) for treatment of HIV infection. Which assessment data indicates an adverse reaction to the drug?
- A. Cough
- B. Enlarged lymph nodes
- C. Decreased WBC count
- D. Fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased WBC count. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression which can lead to a decrease in white blood cell count. This is an adverse reaction as it increases the risk of infections.
A: Cough is not a common adverse reaction to zidovudine.
B: Enlarged lymph nodes are not directly associated with zidovudine adverse reactions.
D: Fever is a non-specific symptom and can occur due to various reasons, not specifically related to zidovudine.
Therefore, the most concerning and relevant assessment data indicating an adverse reaction to zidovudine is a decreased white blood cell count.
A 60-year-old client with a palpable mass to the right adnexa and family history of ovarian cancer is seen by the HCP. The nurse anticipates the order for which of the following laboratory results?
- A. CBC
- B. Blood glucose
- C. CA-125
- D. FSH and LH
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CA-125. This tumor marker is used to assess for ovarian cancer in high-risk individuals. The client's age, palpable mass, and family history of ovarian cancer raise suspicion for malignancy. A CBC (choice A) and blood glucose (choice B) are not specific to ovarian cancer evaluation. FSH and LH (choice D) are hormone levels that do not directly assess for ovarian cancer. Therefore, CA-125 is the most appropriate lab test to anticipate in this scenario.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a 16-year-old female client experiencing her first outbreak of genital herpes. The client states that she contracted the disease by holding hands with someone who has syphilis. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Acute pain related to the development of genital lesions
- B. Lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission
- C. Ineffective coping related to the increased stress associated with the infection
- D. Noncompliance with treatment related to age of the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the client's statement about contracting herpes by holding hands with someone who has syphilis indicates a lack of understanding about how genital herpes is transmitted. The nurse should prioritize educating the client about the disease, its transmission, and prevention to empower the client to make informed decisions about her health.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Acute pain may be a symptom of genital herpes, but addressing the lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission is more essential for the client's well-being.
C: While coping with the stress of the infection is important, addressing the lack of knowledge should take precedence to prevent further transmission and help the client manage the condition effectively.
D: Noncompliance with treatment may be a concern, but addressing the client's lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission is crucial in promoting understanding and adherence to treatment.