Which law declares that the policy of the State is to promote and upgrade the practice of profession in the country?
- A. RA 7164
- B. Code of Ethics
- C. RA 9173
- D. RA 10912
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RA 9173, also known as the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, is the law that declares the State policy to promote and upgrade the practice of the nursing profession in the Philippines. This law provides for the regulation and maintenance of high standards of nursing education and practice in the country. It aims to ensure the welfare and professional growth of Filipino nurses and to safeguard the health of the public by maintaining competency and professionalism in the nursing profession. Therefore, RA 9173 is the correct choice that reflects the State's policy to promote and upgrade the practice of the nursing profession in the Philippines.
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A nurse is resistant to the change and is not taking an active part in facilitating the process of change. Which is the BEST approach in dealing with the nurse?
- A. Exert coercion on the nurse
- B. Provide a positive reward system for the nurse
- C. Talk and encourage verbalizing feelings of the change
- D. Ignore the resistance of the nurse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best approach in dealing with a nurse who is resistant to change and not actively participating is to communicate and encourage verbalizing feelings about the change. By talking with the nurse and allowing them to express their concerns and feelings, you can address any underlying issues that may be causing the resistance. This approach can help build trust, improve communication, and ultimately increase the nurse's engagement in the change process. Coercion (Choice A) can create negative feelings and resistance, while ignoring the nurse's resistance (Choice D) will not resolve the issue. Providing positive rewards (Choice B) may be helpful but may not address the underlying reasons for resistance. Communication is key in addressing resistance to change and fostering a positive, open environment for all involved.
A nurse is preparing to perform a bedside bronchoscopy procedure for a patient. What action should the nurse take to ensure patient safety during the procedure?
- A. Administering sedation to the patient before the bronchoscopy
- B. Obtaining informed consent from the patient or their legal representative
- C. Skipping the use of topical anesthesia to minimize patient discomfort
- D. Allowing the patient to eat or drink up to one hour before the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to ensure patient safety during a bedside bronchoscopy procedure is to obtain informed consent from the patient or their legal representative. Informed consent is a vital ethical and legal requirement before any medical procedure. It ensures that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure, as well as gives the patient the authority to make decisions about their healthcare. By obtaining informed consent, the nurse ensures that the patient has been properly informed and agrees to undergo the bronchoscopy, which promotes patient autonomy and safety. Administering sedation, using topical anesthesia, and restricting food intake are also important aspects of bronchoscopy preparation, but obtaining informed consent is the primary action to prioritize patient safety.
What is the PRIORITY of care for patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
- A. Maintenance of respiratory function
- B. Prevention of decubitus
- C. Control of urinary tract infection
- D. Replacement of fluid and electrolytes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority of care for a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome is the maintenance of respiratory function. Guillain-Barre Syndrome can cause paralysis, including respiratory muscles, leading to respiratory failure. Ensuring adequate ventilation and oxygenation is crucial to prevent complications such as respiratory failure and the need for mechanical ventilation. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress, such as shortness of breath, decreased oxygen saturation, and diminished lung sounds, is essential in providing prompt intervention and support for the patient's respiratory needs. Other aspects of care, such as prevention of decubitus ulcers, control of urinary tract infections, and replacement of fluid and electrolytes, are also important but not as immediate or life-threatening as ensuring adequate respiratory function in these patients.
When can AIDS be manifested? The nurse answer was, "It can be as early as _______."
- A. 1 year or as late as 2 years
- B. 2 years or as late as 10 years
- C. 1 year
- D. 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After being infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), it can take an average of 8-10 years before the development of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) if left untreated. However, AIDS can manifest sooner in some cases, typically within 2 years, especially if the person's immune system is already significantly compromised or if they have other underlying health conditions. Thus, the manifestation of AIDS can vary, but it generally occurs within a range of 2 to 10 years after initial HIV infection.
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with spironolactone therapy?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the significant side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the bloodstream. Spironolactone works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates potassium and sodium balance in the body. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone reduces potassium excretion in the urine, leading to potential accumulation of potassium in the body.