Nokea
Which of the following antifungal agent act as fungicidal by inhibiting the * synthesis of β1,3 glucan used for the disseminated mucocutaneous Candida infections?
- A. Caspofungin
- B. Amphoterecin B
- C. Flucytosine
- D. Ketoconazole resistance rapidly?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
Caspofungin is a echinocandin antifungal that inhibits the synthesis of β1,3 glucan in the fungal cell wall, leading to cell death. This mechanism makes it fungicidal against Candida infections. Amphotericin B disrupts fungal cell membranes, while Flucytosine interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis. Ketoconazole inhibits ergosterol synthesis. Therefore, A is correct as it targets the specific mechanism for Candida infections.
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What is the drug of choice for ringworm infection?:
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Amphotericin B
- C. Nystatin
- D. Neomycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for ringworm infection because it specifically targets the fungus that causes ringworm. It works by inhibiting fungal cell division, leading to the destruction of the fungus. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for systemic fungal infections, not for ringworm. Nystatin is used to treat fungal infections of the skin, mouth, and intestines, but it is not the first-line treatment for ringworm. Neomycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like ringworm. Therefore, Griseofulvin is the most appropriate choice for treating ringworm.
If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Maybe
- D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion.
Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment.
Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs.
Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.
The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with renal
- A. Provide privacy for the patient. stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters would be priorities for the nurse to address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing the patient's renal function parameters such as serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and urine output are essential in determining the status of the kidneys. These parameters help the nurse evaluate renal function, assess for renal impairment, and monitor for any complications related to renal stones. Option A is incorrect as providing privacy is important but not a priority in this situation. Option C and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific parameters related to renal function assessment.
The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which position would be most appropriate in this situation?
- A. In the parents lap
- B. In a frog-leg position on the examining table
- C. In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
- D. Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, placing the girl in a frog-leg position on the examining table. This position provides optimal access and visualization of the external genitalia while ensuring the child's comfort and privacy. Placing the child in the parent's lap (A) may hinder the nurse's ability to perform the examination effectively. The lithotomy position (C) with feet in stirrups is typically used for pelvic exams in older females and may not be necessary for a school-age girl. Lying flat with legs extended (D) would also not provide the necessary access and visibility required for the examination.
When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information, the nurse would:
- A. Squeeze the glans to check for the presence of discharg
- C. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination.
- D. Assess the testicles for the presence of masses or painless lumps.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because the description of deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles in a 25-year-old man is indicative of normal changes associated with development and aging. The nurse should recognize this as a normal finding and proceed with the examination without any further intervention.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Squeezing the glans to check for discharge is not indicated based on the information provided. This action is unnecessary and could potentially cause discomfort or harm to the patient.
D: Assessing the testicles for masses or painless lumps is not relevant to the described findings of pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with sebaceous follicles. This choice does not align with the presented information and would not be appropriate in this scenario.