Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of birth control pills?
- A. They block sperm from reaching the egg.
- B. They prevent ovulation by suppressing hormone levels.
- C. They increase cervical mucus production to block sperm entry.
- D. They reduce the size of the ovaries and fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Birth control pills primarily work by preventing ovulation, thereby inhibiting the release of eggs for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills do not directly block sperm; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is partially correct but is not the main mechanism, as the primary function is to prevent ovulation. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not alter the size of reproductive organs.
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The nurse is educating a client about kick counts. When should the client contact the healthcare provider?
- A. Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours.
- B. Fewer than 5 movements in 1 hour.
- C. No movements after drinking juice.
- D. No movements for 12 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours is concerning and warrants further evaluation.
The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia. What is the most important assessment?
- A. Daily weight.
- B. Urine protein levels.
- C. Fetal heart rate.
- D. Blood pressure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blood pressure monitoring is critical to prevent complications such as eclampsia and placental issues in preeclampsia.
The nurse is caring for a client with suspected placenta previa. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
- B. Monitor fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
- C. Administer oxytocin to stop the bleeding.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring maternal and fetal well-being is critical in cases of placenta previa to detect complications.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks' gestation and notes that the fetal heart rate is 174 beats/minute. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Document the finding.
- B. Check the mother's heart rate.
- C. Notify the health care provider (HCP).
- D. Tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fetal heart rate above 160 bpm at term may indicate fetal distress, requiring immediate notification of the HCP.
A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors paces the client at risk for infection.
- A. Meconium "“ start fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A midline episiotomy increases the risk for infection in postpartum clients due to the incision made in the perineum during childbirth. This incision can serve as a portal of entry for microorganisms, leading to an increased risk of infection. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) can increase the risk of respiratory distress in the newborn but is not directly related to infection in the postpartum client. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition during pregnancy where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which poses risks related to bleeding rather than infection postpartum. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a risk factor for developing preeclampsia or eclampsia during pregnancy but does not directly increase the risk of infection in the postpartum period.