Nokea
Which of the following condition has low risk of progression to liver cirrhosis:
- A. Hepatic steatosis
- B. Hepatic steatohepatitis
- C. Hepatic steatohepatitis with fibrosis
- D. Chronic hepatitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Steatosis fat sits, low cirrhosis odds; steatohepatitis, fibrosis, chronic, booze burn scar. Nurses mark this chronic liver lite.
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A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
- A. Pruritis (itching)
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Altered glucose metabolism
- D. Confusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting top the chemo side-effect list, hitting most patients due to drugs (e.g., cisplatin, doxorubicin) irritating the gut and triggering the brain's vomiting center. It can last 24-48 hours post-dose, often needing antiemetics like ondansetron. Pruritis might occur with specific agents or reactions, but it's less universal. Glucose metabolism shifts are rare, tied to steroids or endocrine effects, not a chemo hallmark. Confusion could stem from brain mets or fatigue, not a primary effect. Nurses prep patients for this duo nausea and vomiting ensuring they know it's manageable with meds and timing, easing anxiety and boosting adherence in early oncology treatment.
A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct?
- A. Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues.
- B. Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location.
- C. Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs.
- D. Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Malignant tumors metastasize spreading to distant sites via lymph or blood unlike benign ones, which stay put. That's the key split. Benign tumors can still mess up nearby tissues by pressing on them (e.g., a benign meningioma squeezing brain), so A's off. B's wrong benign tumors rarely recur if fully removed; malignancy's more prone to that. D's a myth malignant cells don't always divide faster; some, like chronic leukemia, creep along. Nurses in oncology nail this down for patients facing biopsies, like this breast case, where fear of spread drives the question. Explaining metastasis clarifies why malignant's scarier it's not just growth, it's invasion, a game-changer for prognosis and treatment.
Repaglinide belongs to the class
- A. Sulphonylureas
- B. Thiazolidinediones
- C. Benzoic acid derivatives
- D. Biguanides
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Repaglinide's benzoic acid kin short, sharp insulin jolts, not sulphonylureas' long haul, thiazolidinediones' sensitivity boost, or biguanides' glucose clamp. It's a mealtime spike buster, a chronic tool pharmacists slot apart from sulphonylurea's sustained push, a nuanced diabetes dance.
Which of the following is a characteristic of health-related hardiness known as 'challenge'?
- A. Confidence to appraise a health stressor
- B. Ability to modify responses to health stressors
- C. Viewing a health stressor as an opportunity for growth
- D. Optimal psychosocial adaptation to a health stressor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hardiness' challenge sees stressors as growth shots not just sizing up, tweaking, or adapting a mindset nurses foster in chronic fights. It's flipping pain to gain, a resilient twist.
A 59-year-old lady with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), heart failure from coronary artery disease, and an ejection fraction of 60 percent attends your practice for a routine follow-up. She has mild dyspnea while climbing stairs but reports no other limitations in her usual activities. Her HbA1c was 7.2 percent. She is compliant to extended-release metformin 2,000 mg OD, Rosuvastatin 10 mg ON, Telmisartan 40 mg OD, carvedilol 25 mg BD, and aspirin 100 mg OD. Her vital signs reveal stable body weight at 88 kg, a blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg, a heart rate of 68 bpm and regular, and a respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min. Her examination is otherwise normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Increase carvedilol to 50 mg BD
- B. Add an SGLT2-inhibitor to her regimen
- C. Add basal insulin to her regimen
- D. Add dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor to her regimen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HFpEF (EF 60%) with T2DM and dyspnea SGLT2 inhibitors cut heart failure risk and aid sugar, a dual win over carvedilol's max-out, insulin's glucose-only hit, DPP-4's weak HF edge, or unneeded frusemide (no edema). Clinicians add this, boosting chronic outcomes, a smart next step.