Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme? *
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Efavirenz
- C. Stavudine
- D. Ritonavir
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ritonavir. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor that works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, which is crucial for viral replication. This action helps prevent the virus from spreading and multiplying in the body. Lamivudine (A), Efavirenz (B), and Stavudine (C) are not protease inhibitors and work through different mechanisms like nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Lamivudine and Stavudine) and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Efavirenz). Therefore, they do not directly target the HIV protease enzyme like Ritonavir does.
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A nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the health history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination, the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
- A. Nabothian cysts are present.
- B. The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
- C. The cervical surface is granular and red.
- D. Stringy, opaque secretions are present.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The cervical surface is granular and red. This finding indicates inflammation or infection, as a healthy cervix should appear smooth and pink. The presence of granular and red surface could suggest cervicitis or another underlying issue that needs further evaluation or treatment.
A: Nabothian cysts are present - This is a normal finding and does not indicate any abnormality or concern.
B: The cervical os is a horizontal slit - This is a normal anatomical variation and does not indicate any abnormality.
D: Stringy, opaque secretions are present - This can be a normal finding depending on the phase of the menstrual cycle and does not necessarily indicate an abnormality.
A patient with suprapubic pain and symptoms of urinary frequency and urgency has two negative urine cultures. What is one assessment finding that would indicate interstitial cystitis?
- A. Residual urine greater than 200 mL
- B. A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing
- C. A voiding pattern that indicates psychogenic urinary retention
- D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination is a classic symptom of interstitial cystitis. This pattern of pain is due to inflammation of the bladder lining, which worsens as the bladder fills with urine and improves temporarily after urination. This finding is specific to interstitial cystitis and not typically seen in other conditions.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Residual urine greater than 200 mL is more indicative of bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder dysfunction, not specifically interstitial cystitis.
B: A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing is suggestive of neurogenic bladder or bladder outlet obstruction, not interstitial cystitis.
C: A voiding pattern indicating psychogenic urinary retention is more likely related to psychological factors affecting bladder function, not interstitial cystitis.
A gerontologic nurse is assessing a patient who has
- A. The patients suprapubic region is dull on percussion. numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment
- B. The patient is uncharacteristically drowsy. findings should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI?
- C. The patient claims to void large amounts of urine 2 to Select all that apply.
- D. Food cravings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because uncharacteristic drowsiness can be a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults. UTIs can present atypically in older adults with symptoms like confusion, lethargy, and drowsiness. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: A dull suprapubic region on percussion is not specific to UTI.
C: Voiding large amounts of urine is not a typical symptom of UTI.
D: Food cravings are not associated with UTI symptoms.
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene * epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onymycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Terbinane
- C. Itraconazole
- D. Amphotiricin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Terbinafine is the correct answer as it inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane. This drug is specifically effective against onychomycosis in diabetic patients due to its fungicidal action and good nail penetration. Griseofulvin (A) targets microtubules, not squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) inhibits ergosterol synthesis via a different mechanism. Amphotericin B (D) disrupts fungal cell membrane by binding to ergosterol, not squalene epoxidase.
The following topical antifungal drugs include all EXCEPT:
- A. Tolnaftate
- B. Crotamiton
- C. Terbinafine
- D. Ciclopirox
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crotamiton. Crotamiton is not a topical antifungal drug; it is a scabicidal and antipruritic agent used to treat scabies and itching. Tolnaftate (A), Terbinafine (C), and Ciclopirox (D) are all topical antifungal drugs used to treat various fungal skin infections. Tolnaftate is commonly used for athlete's foot, ringworm, and jock itch. Terbinafine is effective against fungal infections like athlete's foot and ringworm. Ciclopirox is used to treat fungal infections like athlete's foot and ringworm as well.